English Language
SECTION A: Answer one question only from this section.
1. Your family just moved to another state as a result of your father's transfer. Write a letter to your friend in your former estate telling him or her your experiences.
2. Write a letter to the minister of education, explaining why you think sex education should be included in the secondary school curriculum.
3. Write an article suitable for publication in a national newspaper on the dangers of hard drugs.
4. Argue for or against the motion which says “Teachers are better than doctors”
5. Write a short story that ends in “Had I know”
SECTION B: COMPREHENSION PASSAGE
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions on it.
Learning to speak one's language comes naturally to a human being; we learn it without formal instruction. But writing is an unnatural activity; it must be taught formally and studied deliberately, Indeed, many of the problems of finding proper written equivalent for the various features of speech.
The spelling of our words is a clumsy attempt to reproduce the sound of our voices. The punctuation of our sentence and setting of paragraph are designed to give some approximation of the pauses and intonation we use automatically, to give shape and point to our speaking.
The writer of English (or any other language) loses a whole world of gesture, facial expressions and tone of voice the minute he decides to write something rather than say it aloud. He loses the immediacy of direct contact with his audience. If there were on compensation at all for all these disadvantages, then communication with other people through the medium of squiggle on paper would be as unsatisfactory as trying to with your feet with your socks on.
Writing takes more effort than speech, but the effort we make simply to capture our words on paper can also lead us to compose things that are worth the effort.
The unusual energy that goes into achievement in any art or sport can and should function finally to help the individual increase his own powers and perfects his abilities. Three hundred and fifty years ago, a clever man pointed out that practice in speaking makes a man ready or quick in his response while practice in writing makes 'exact', helps him to polish and perfect his thought.
Questions:
a. Why did the writer say that writing is an unnatural activity?
b. Give two specific examples of problems encountered in leaning to write
C. Mention any two disadvantages that arise in written communication.
d. What major advantage comes from the acquisition of good writing skills.
e. ..... that goes into achievement in any art or sport.
What is grammatical name used to describe the above expression?
What is its function?
f. for each of the following words, find another word or phrase that means the same and can replace it as used in the passage
Deliberately
Equivalent
Responses
Compensation
Designed
Polish
SECTION C
SUMMARY
Read the passage and answer the questions on it.
The food and oil crises demonstrate the extent of our interdependence. Many developing nations need the food surplus of the few developed nations. And many industrialized nations need the oil production of few developing nations.
Energy is required to produce food, and food to produce energy -and both to provide a decent life for everyone. The problems of food and energy can be resolved on the basis of cooperation-or can, I should say, be made unmanageable on the basis of confrontation. Runaway inflation, propelled by food and oil price increases is an early warning signal. Let us delude ourselves.
Failure to cooperate on oil, food and inflation could spell disaster for every nation.
The united nation must not, and need not, allow this to occur. A global strategy for food and energy is urgently required. It is a belief that four principles should guide a global approach.
Firstly, all nations must substantially increase production. Just to maintain the present standard of living, the world must almost double its output of food and energy to match the expected increase in the world population by the end of century. To meet aspirations for a better life, production will have to expand at a significantly faster rate than population growth.
Secondly, all nations must seek to achieve a level of price which not only provide an incentive to producers but which consumer can also afford. It should now be clear that the developed nations are not the only n=countries which demand and receive adequate returns for their goods but it should also be clear that by confronting consumers with production restrictions artificial pricing and the prospect of ultimate bankruptcy, producers will eventually become victims of their own actions,
Thirdly, all nations must avoid the abuse of man's fundamental needs for the sake of narrow material bloc advantage. The attempt by any country to use one commodity for political purpose will inevitably tempt other countries to use their commodities for their own purposes.
Fourthly, the nations of the world must ensure that the protest among us are not overwhelmed by rising prices of the imports necessary for survival. The traditional aid donor and the increasingly wealthy oil producers must join hands in this effort.
Questions:
1. Summarize in one sentence, how the developed and developing nations are interdependent in their needs
2. In one sentence, show that the inevitable result of confrontation among nations will be
3. In four sentences, one for each, summarize the writer's suggestion for affecting smooth global interdependence.
SECTION D
LEXIS AND STRUCTURES
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes each of the following sentences.
1. When you _____ an opponent's point in a debate, you must do so politely
(a) Refute (b)Rebuke (C)Reject (d)Refuse
2. Mr. Collins does not allow his name to be published in connection with his philanthropy because he _______ publicity
(a) Wields (b) Lacks (c) Detests (d) Denies
3. I should be as ____ as Kofi if I were so rejected by close friend
(a) Conscious(b) Timid(c) Aggrieved(d) Courteous
4. The press will no longer be free when the new government starts to ____ the newspapers
(a) Censure(b) Edit(c) Publish(d) Censor
5. Everyone was disappointed to see the pastor doing those things that were ____ with the morals he preached
(a) Incompetent(b) Complacent(c) Inconsistent(d) Conducive
6. The boy is mentally unbalanced, so you would be ____ of his behavior
(a) Tolerant(b) Tolerable(c) Apologetic(d) Careful
7. The president complained that too many doctors have _____ for better remuneration.
(a) Immigrated(b) Emigrated(c) Repatriated(d) Exiled
8. The doctors listened to my heartbeat with a ____
(a) Microscope(b) Scalped(c) Chronometer(d) stethoscope
9. She was ______ and it was not clear to me what she meant
(a) Unknown(b) Unintelligible(c) Indefinite(d) Illegible
10. Clara, your writing is difficult to read; you must try to make it _______
(a) Easier(b) Legible(C) Large
(d) Eligible
From the list of words or group of words lettered A-D, choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word or group of words and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the sentence
11. The man refused to accept the offer of a job in the rural area; he referred to the one in the____ area
(a) Local(b) Urban(c) Township(d) Municipal
12. He is quite an outspoken young man but _______
(a) Humorous(b) Sober(c) Taciturn(d) Silent
13. One of the twins was as daring as the other was ______
(a) Morose(b) Timid(c) Secretive(d) Rational
14. A gully, which is natural phenomenon should not be mistaken for a tunnel, which is ______
(a) Supernatural(b) False(c) Artificial(d) Modern
15. He intentionally hid the document but his secretary _____ burnt them
(a) Carelessly(b) Willingly(c) Accidentally
(d) Foolishly
16. It is curios how Bayo can be so carefree in his ways while his younger brother is so _______
(a) Meticulous(b) Eccentric(c) Indifferent(d) Active
17. Personally, I give in rather easily when it comes to arguments, but Emeka will always _______ to his opinion
(a) Hold in(b) Hold on(c) Hold back(d) Hold up
18. He didn't lose the fight because of his bravery but for his _____
(a) Ignorance(b) Strength(c) Cowardice(d) Rashness
19. If you do not drive with care you may be charged for _______
(a) Recklessness(b) Drunkenness(c) Over speeding(d) Ignorance
20. The management has neither ______ nor denied the rumor that it was going to lay-off some workers
(a) Pronounced(b) Confirm(c) Reject(d) Advertised
21. The crop the farmer planted will be _____ in three months time
(a) Sold(b) Weeded(c) Uprooted(d) Harvested
22. Instead of ___ the issue, the speaker digressed to unimportant matters.
(a) Summarizing(b) Describing(c) Revealing
(d) Addressing
23. His father is an ____ driver but he is only a novice
(a) Enlighten(b) Aged(c) Excellent(d) Experience
From the word or group of words lettered A-D below each of the following sentence, choose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word or group of words as it is used in the sentence
24. The government has approved new salary structure as an incentive for workers
(a) A reward(b) An encouragement(c) A package(d) An advance
25. The accident victim was bleeding profusely
(a) Slowly(b) Excessively(c) Extremely(d) Abundantly
26. The have tried to circumvent the restriction on the important of scarce commodities.
(a) By pass(b) Confront(c) Oppose(d) Practicable
27. The company had satisfied itself that the project was feasible before embarking
(a) Easy(b) Attractive(c) Capable(d) Practicable
28. Though there is not riot on the campus, the students are restive
(a) Quiet (b) Chaotic (c) Restless (d) Busy
29. In the tropical Africa, mosquitoes are ubiquitous
(a) Dangerous (b)Harmful(c)Trouble (d) Everywhere
30. The prosecutor was accused of obstructing justice
(a) Hindering(b) Retarding(c) Stopping(d) Interrupting
31. The man preaches humility without matching it with action.
(a) Salvation(b) Honesty(c) Kindness(d) Modesty
32. Mr. Haruna plays the piano with great dexterity
(a) Wisdom(b) Pride(c) Force(d) Skill
33. The college officer insisted that I show him my credentials before I could be registered
(a) Books(b) Qualification(c) Statements(d) Identity
From the words lettered A-D, choose the words that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined
34. Tick (a) Busy(b) Freak(c) Police(d) Caprice
35. Bet (a) Pretty(b) Leisure(c) Exact(d) Penal
36. Card (a) Sand(b) Mad(c) Talk(d) Guard
37. Book (a) Pool(b) Brush(c) Food(d) Push
From the words lettered A-D, choose the word that has same consonant sound(s) as the one represented by the letters) underlined
38. Boat (a) Climb(b) Cab(c) Comb(d) Tomb
39. Deaf (a) Hummed(b) Slapped(c) Stooped(d) Cursed
40. Chest (a) Chasis(b) Chagrin (c) Chasm (d) Hunch
Subject: Mathematics
Time: hours
Instruction: Answer all questions in Section I and three questions in Section II.
Section I Objective
1. Simplify 24 x ()-1 x 40
a). 116 b). 128 c). 132 d). 164
2. Express the product of 0.008 and 0.007 in standard form.
a). 5.6 x 105 b). 5.6 x 10-4 c). 5.6 x 10-2 d). 5.6 x 10-5
3. Find the missing number if the following addition is made in base five.
2 3 1 4
* * * *
3 0 0 15
a). 23135 b). 23135 c). 1325 d). 1025
4. Make Y the subject of the relation if P = MY + K
a). b). c). d).
5. Simplify (2)-2
a). 4 b). c). 5 d). 18
6. A sales girl gave a change of ₦ 1.15 to a customer instead of ₦ 1.25. Calculate her percentage error.
a). 10% b). 8.7% c). 8% d). 2.4%
7. Solve the equation 32(x + 3) = 64(x + 1), find x
a). 9 b). 8 c). 7 d). 6
8. Solve the equation 8 + x = 0(mod 9).
a). 2 b). 3 c). 1 d). 4
9. Find the roots of the equation x2 – 3x + 2 = 0
a). -2 or b). -2 or 1 c). 2 or - d). -1 or 2
10. Instead of recording the number 1.23cm of the radius of a tube, a student recorded 1.32cm. Find the percentage error, correct to one decimal place.
a). 6.8% b). 7.3% c). 9.6% d). 14.4%
11. If q varies directly as p and inversely as the square root of r, which of the following is true.
a). q Ξ± pr2 b). q Ξ± c). r Ξ± d). q Ξ± 2
12. Make “h” the subject of the formula in the equation g =
a). h = g2(A – 3) b). h = Ag2 – 3 c). h = A - 3g2 d). h = g2A + 3
13. In a class of 80 students, every student had to study Economics or Geography, or both Economics and Geography. If 65 students studied Economics and 50 studied Geography, how many studied both subjects?
a). 15 b). 30 c). 35 d). 45
14. Round off 0.625 to the nearest whole number.
a). 0.63 b). 1.00 c). 0.60 d). 0.625
15. Given that ={a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h}, A = {a, d, f} and B = {b, d, f, h}. Write down the set containing the element of A(B)
a). {d, f} b). {b, e} c). {a, e} d). {f, h}
16. Find 4 5(mod 6)
a). 1(mod 6) b). 4(mod 6) c). 5(mod 6) d). 2(mod 6)
17. Simplify 56x-4 14x-8
a). 4x- 4 b). 2x-12 c). 3x-3 d). 4x4
18. Find which market was held 10 days after market B.
a). A b). B c). C d). D
19. Write as a single fraction -
a). b). c). d).
20. Evaluate 0.009 0.012, leaving your answer in standard form.
a). 7.5 x 102 b). 7.5 x 10-1 c). 7.55 x 10-1 d). 7.5 x 10-2
21. If ={a, b, c, d, e}, and A = {a, d, e}. List the member of AI
a). {b, c} b). {c, e} c). {a, b} d). {c, a}
22. If y = 235 + 1015, find y, leaving your answer in base two.
a). 1001112 b). 111102 c). 1110012 d). 1111002
23. Given that a = 2 and b = 1, evaluate
a). b). c). d).
24. Write the quadratic equation in x whose roots are -1/4 and -1/4.
a). 16x2 + 8x + 1 =0 b). 12x2 + 10x -1 =0
c). 16x2 – 8x +1 = 0 d). 4x2 -6x -2 = 0
25. Factorise 3x2 - 75
a). 3(x – 25) b). 3(x + 5)(x -5) c). (3x +5)(x -15) d). (x -5)(x – 5)
26. The shaded region below is
a). P1R b). (PQ)1R c). QR d). P1QR
27. Round off 2197m to the nearest ten.
a). 2200m b). 2110m c). 2190m d). 2197m
28. Factorize the expression am + bn - an - bm.
a). (a – b)(m + n) b). (a – b)(m – n) c). (a + b)(m – n) d). (a + b)(m + n)
29. If x y and x = 3 when y = 1, then the formula connecting x and y is?
a). x = y b). x = 3y c). x = d). x =
30. Solve the following equations simultaneously, y = 3x and 4y – 5x = 14
a). (-2,-6) b). (2,6) c). (2,-6) d). (-2,6)
31. Approximate 803941 to 3 significant figures
a). 803900 b). 804000 c). 804 d). 803
32. The negation of “Bimbo is slow” is?
a). Bimbo is fast b). Bimbo is not slow c). Bimbo is quick d). Bimbo is smart
33. A sector of a circle of radius 9 cm subtends angle 135o at the centre of the circle. Find the area of the sector to the nearest cm2. (Take = ).
a). 85cm2 b). 75cm2 c). 95cm2 d). 84cm2
34. of of a certain number is 3. Find the number.
a). 11.75 b). 3.75 c). 3 d). 11.25
35. If 4m = , find the value of 2m2
a). -18 b). 16 c). 18 d). 32
36. If (2x + 3) is a factor of 6x2 + x - 12, the other factor is?
a). (4 – 3x) b). (3x - 4) c). (3x + 4) d). (4x + 3)
37. Which of the following is not a quadratic expression?
a). 2x2 - 5x b). x(x – 5) c). x2 – 5 d). 5(x -1)
38. Convert the number 2D416 to a number in base 10.
a). 724 b). 704 c). 744 d). 714
39. Simplify 18 - 21(mod 9).
a). -6(mod 9) b). 3(mod 9) c). -3(mod 9) d). 6(mod 9)
40. Write in index form logyN = K
a). NK = y b). Ky = N c). yK = N d). NK = y
Section II: Theory. Answer question one (1) and any other two (2) questions.
Using a scale of 2cm to 1 unit on x-axis and 2cm to 2 units on y-axis, draw a graph of the function y = x2 + x – 8 for values of x from – 4 to + 3.
From your graph
Find the roots of the equation: x2 + x – 8 = 0
Obtain the minimum value of y.
Find “x” when “y” is -6.
1b. Solve the quadratic Equation 4y2 + 5y = 21
In a market survey, 100 traders sell fruits. 40 sell apples, 46 oranges, 50 mangoes, 14 apples and oranges, 15 apples and mangoes, and 10 sell the three fruits. Each of the 100 traders sells at least one of the three fruits.
Represent the information in a venn diagram.
Find the number that sells oranges and mangoes only.
The total number that sells at least two fruits.
3a. If “T” varies inversely as “S” and “T” = 2 when “S” = 60. Find,
The relationship between T and S.
The value of T when S = 90.
The value of S when T = 2.
b. A sector subtends an angle of 42o at the centre of a circle of radius 2.8cm. calculate the perimeter of the sector. Take as .
4a. Given the formula; V =
Make r the subject of the formula.
Find r when given that h = 9cm and V = 1848cm3 and = .
b. Construct a quadratic equation whose roots are and -2.
5a. The sum of two numbers is 7, twice their product gives 20. Find the numbers.
b. A sector of a circle has an area of 55cm2. If the radius of the circle is 10cm, calculate the angle of the sector. (Use
PHYSICS
INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ALL QUESTION FROM SECTION A AND THREE (3) QUESTION FROM SECTION B
A short chain is sometimes attached to the back of a petrol tank to (a) generate more friction (b) ensure the balance of the tanker (c) caution the driver when over speeding (d) conduct excess charge to the earth.
Which of the following materials is a conductor (a) plastic (b) sodium (c) wax (d) glass.
A 24V potential difference is applied across a parallel combination of four 6ohms resistors (a) 1A (b) 4A (c) 16A (d) 18A.
Which of the following dimension represent impulse (a) MLT2 (b) MLT (c) ML (d) MLT-1
Which of the following is not a vector quantity (a) force (b) velocity (c) momentum (d) temperature.
A body accelerate from rest uniformly from rest at 2ms-2. Calculate its velocity after 9m (a) 2ms-2 (b) 2ms-1 (c)6s-1 (d) 6ms-1.
Which of the following is a scalar quantity (a) Impulse (b) weight (c) tension (d) speed.
A lamp is rated 240V, 60W. The resistance of the filament is (a) 960 ohms (b) 60 ohms (c) 160 ohms (d) 90V.
Three ohms resistors are connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistor? (a) 1 ohm (b) 2 ohms (c) 3ohms (d) e4 ohms.
A current of 100MA pass through a conductor for 2 minutes. The quantity of electricity transported is (a) 1200C (b) 12C (c) 120C (d) 12V.
A car fused marked 3A operates optimally on a 12V battery, calculate the resistance of the fuse (a) 12 ohms (b) 4 ohms (c) 15 ohms (d) 36 ohms.
A girl whose mass is 20kg climb up 25 steps each of the height 2m is in 10 seconds. Calculate the power expanded (g=10m/s). (a) 1000J (b) 1KW (c) 50W (d) 100W.
If LS and V are the linear, area and volume expansivities of a given metal respectively, which of the following equation is correct (a) L-S=0 (b) V-2S=0 (c) S-2L=0 (d) Y=3B.
What is the resultant of two vectors 5N and 3N acting in the same direction? (a) 15N (b) 2N (c) 8N (d) -2N.
Calculate the resultant of two forces 4N and 3N acting in the direction of due North and due east. (a) 5N (b) 8N (c) 12N (d) 1N.
The horizontal component of the vector is given by (a) Vx=Vcos (b)Vx=Vsin (c) Vy=Vcos (d)Vy=Vsin
Calculate the work done when a mass of 20kg is lifted through a vertical distance 2m (g=10m/s) (a) 20J (b) 300J (c) 40J (d) 400J.
A object which can do work is said to have (a) power (b) work (c) ability (d) energy.
A bullet of mass 3kg is moving with a velocity of 60m/s. What is it kinetic energy (a) 540J (b) 40J (c) 54J (d) 2.4KJ.
… is define as the time rate of doing work (a) work (b) power (c) energy (d) joules.
……… is the smallest particle of a substance which can have a separate existence and still remain the properties of that substance (a) molecules (b) particle (c) nucleus (d) electron.
The process of whereby heat transfer from one point to another through a material medium is called (a) convection (b) conduction (c) radiation (d) transfer.
Atomic structure consist of the following except (a) molecules (b) electrons (c) proton (d) nucleus.
The unit of resistance is (a) ohms (b) volt (c) ohms-meter (d) meter.
The S.I unit of young modulus is the same as that of (a) pressure (b) force (c) velocity (d) acceleration.
The electric current is measured in (a) watts (b) volts (c) Ampere (d) coulomb.
An electric iron is rated 1000W, 230V. What is the resistance of its element? (a) 57.6 ohms (b) 55.9 ohms (c) 52.9 ohms (d) 51.9 ohms.
A stone of mass 0.5kg is dropped from a height of 1.2m. Calculate its maximum kinetic energy (g=10m/s) (a) 6J (b) 60J (c) 50J (d) 120J.
Which of the following is not true about charges (a) charges are found at the surface of a conductor (b) charges concentrate at the curved point (c) there is no charge in hollowed conductor (d) charges are found inside of copper conductor.
…… is defined as the region or a space under the influence of some physical agency such as gravitation, magnetism and electricity (a) field (b) charges (c) conductor (d) electrons.
…… is the process where solid turns to liquid without passing the liquid state.
…… is the process whereby liquid turns into vapor below boiling point.
…… is define as increase in volume per unit volume per degree rise in temperature.
…… is a process where heat transfer from one point to another without material medium.
When a glass rod is rub with a silk ……… charge is acquired.
…… is the instrument use for testing and detecting of small electric charges.
The device for transporting and storing of electric charges is called……
A close circuit without load is called ……
A blacksmith heated a metal whose cubic expansivity is 6.3x10-6. The area expansivity is ..
¾ horse power is equal to ……… watts.
ESSAY QUESTION
Answer three (3) questions only. Question (1) compulsory
(a) State ohms law
(b) A body is under the action of two forces 7N and 10N find the resultant forces if
The force are parallel and act in the same direction
The forces are parallel and act in opposite direction
The forces incline at an angle 60o to each other
If the two forces incline at an angle of 160o to each other.
(a)I State three differences between potential and kinetic energy.
ii Briefly explain conduction, convection and radiation.
(b) A stone of mass 0.2kg is thrown vertically upward from the ground with a velocity of 20ms-1. Find (a) The potential energy at greatest height (tf) and the volume of h. (b) The kinetic energy reaching the ground.
3. (a)i. Define heat energy (ii) Calculate the power in horse power (h.P) of a pump which lift 1000kg of water through a height of 3m in 10 secs. (g=10m/s)
(b)i Define area expansivity (ii) With the aid of a diagram only differentiate between face centered cubic and body centered crystals.
4 (a) State four difference between crystalline and amorphous substance.
(b) An electric cell with normal voltage E has a resistance of 6 ohms connected across it. If the voltage fall to 0.8E. Calculate the internal resistance of the cells.
CHEMISTRY FOR 2022-2023 SESSION
INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
In Boyle’s law, A. T is constant, while P varies directly with V B. P is constant, while V varies inversely with T C. V is constant, while P varies directly with T D. T is constant, while V varies inversely with P
A hydrocarbon compound contains 92.3% carbon. Determine its empirical formula. [H=1.00; C=12.0]. A. CH B. CH2 C. CH3 D. C2H3
An organic compound has the empirical formula CH2. If its molar mass is 42 gmol1, what is its molecular formula? [π» = 1,πΆ = 12.0] (a) C2H4 (b) C3H4 (c) C3H6 (d) C3H8
What is the IUPAC name of the compound represented by the molecular formula NaClO4? (a) Sodium tetraoxochlorate (I) (b) Sodium tetraoxochlorate (IV) (c) Sodium tetraoxochlorate (VI) (d) Sodium tetraoxochlorate (VII)
Which of the following statements is not a postulate of the kinetic theory of gases? (a) Molecules move with the same speed. (b) Intermolecular forces are negligible. (c) Molecules are in a state of constant random motion. (d) Collision between molecules is elastic.
The volume occupied by a given mass of gas depends on its (a) diffusion rate (b) temperature and pressure (c) degree of solubility (d) relative density
The gas law which describes the relationship between volume and temperature is (a) Boyle’s law (b) Charles’ law (c) Dalton’s law (d) Graham’s law
What is the value of −14°πΆ on the Kelvin temperature scale? (a) 259 K (b) 259°πΆ (c) 287 K (d) 287°πΆ
If 60 cm3 of a gas is heated from 27°πΆ to 50°πΆ, what is the new volume of the gas at constant pressure? (a) 32.4 cm3 (b) 55.7 cm3 (c) 64.6 cm3 (d) 111.1 cm3 10. Which of the following increases as boiling water changes to steam? (a) Temperature of the system. (b) Degree of disorder of the system. (c) Number of molecules. (d) Activation energy.
The phenomenon observed when dust particles collide randomly in a beam of sunlight is known as (a) Tyndale effect. (b) diffusion. (c) osmosis. (d) Brownian motion.
Consider the reaction represented by the following equation:
The values of x, y and z respectively, are (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 4 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 5
Consider the reaction represented by the following equation:
The value of y in the reaction is (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 1
A colourless liquid used in rocket engines, whose empirical formula is ππ2, has a
molar mass of 92. What is its molecular formula? [π = 14, π = 16] (a) π2π4 (b) π2π5 (c) π3π6 (d) π3π6
An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71% and H, 9.67%. The empirical formula of the compound would be: (a) πΆπ»3π (b) πΆπ»2π (c)πΆπ»π (d) πΆπ»4π
Element A belongs to Group VII in p-block and element B belongs to Group I in s-block of the periodic table. Out of the following assumptions, the correct one is:
A and B are metals (b) A and B are non-metals (c) A is a metal and B is a non-metal
(d) A is a non-metal and B is a metal
17. Examine the following elements:
N, O, F, Ne
P, S, Cl, Ar
Br, Kr
I, Xe
In modern periodic table, on which side are these elements placed
(a) Top left side (b) Bottom left side (c) Top right side (d) Middle side
Which of the following statement(s) about the Modern Periodic Table is/are incorrect?
The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their decreasing atomic number
The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic masses
Isotopes are placed in adjoining group(s) in the Periodic Table
The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic number
I only (b) I, II and III (c) I, II and IV (d) IV only
Air at sea level is dense. This is a practical application of
Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law (c) Kelvin’s law (d) Brown’s law
The bond formed when two electrons that are shared between two atoms are donated by only one of the atoms is (a) covalent. (b) dative. (c) ionic. (d) metallic.
Use the following portion of the periodic table to answer this question:
What letter represents an element that participates in covalent rather than ionic bonding? (a) X
Q (c) Z (d) J
The bond formed when two electrons that are shared between two atoms are donated by only one of the atoms is (a) covalent. (b) dative (c) ionic (d) metallic.
Which of the following bond types is responsible for the high boiling point of water? (a) Metallic bond
Covalent bond (c) Ionic bond (d) Hydrogen bond
The bond formed between π»2π πππ π»+ to form the hydroxonium ion π»3π+ is (a) dative.
Covalent (c) electrovalent. (d) ionic.
In metallic solid, the forces of attraction are between the mobile valence electrons and the
Atoms (b) neutrons (c) negative (d) positively charged nuclei.
Which of the following statements is correct about the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas?
It increases with increase in pressure.
It increases with increase in temperature.
It increases with increase in volume. (d) It increases at constant pressure.
NaCl has
covalent bond (b) ionic bond (c) coordinate bond (d) metallic bond
what type of bond is found in HCl? (a) Ionic (b) covalent (c) coordinate (d) metallic
A gas exerts pressure on its container because (a) some of its molecules are moving faster than the others. (b) of the collision of the molecules with each other. (c)of the mass of molecules of gas.
The molecules of gas collide with the walls of the container.
Select the compound in which chlorine shows the oxidation state of +7
π»πΆππ4 (b) π»πΆππ3 (c) π»πΆππ2 (d) π»πΆππ
The oxidation state of fluorine in πΉ2π is (a) +1 (b) +2 (c) −1 (d) −2
Example of covalent bond is (a) πΎπΆπ (b) π΅ππ (c) πΆπ»πΆπ3 (d) πΆππ»2
What is the oxidation number of sulphur in ππ42− (a) −2 (b) +2 (c) +6 (d) +8
Which one law is not related to gas laws? (a) Boyle’s (b) Charle’s (c) Gay-Lussac’s (d) Faraday’s
When ice is changing to water, its temperature remains the same because the heat gained is
used to separate the molecules (b) lost partially to the atmosphere.
used to increase the volume of ice. (d) less than the activation energy.
When a solid melt and consequently boils, there is
a gradual increase in the average kinetic energy of the particles.
a sudden decrease in the kinetic energy of the particles.
no change in the average kinetic energy of the particles.
a rapid change in the nature of bonding of the components.
When a substance changes directly from the gaseous state to the sold state without forming a liquid, the substance is said to (a) deposit. (b) evaporate. (c) sublime. (d) precipitate.
Which of the following statements about solids is correct? (a) Solid particles are less orderly than those of a liquid.
Solids have lower densities than liquids.
Solid particles have greater kinetic energies than those of liquids. (d) Sold particles cannot be easily compressed.
The empirical formula of a hydrocarbon containing 0.12 mole of carbon and 0.36 mole of hydrogen is [πΆ = 12,π» = 1]
πΆπ»2 (b) πΆπ»3 (c) πΆ2π»2 (d) πΆ2π»4
INSTRUCTION: ANSWER THREE QUESTIONS ONLY. ALL QUESTIONS CARRY EQUAL MAR
1 An organic compound on analysis gave the following percentage composition by mass of the element present; Carbon 61.85%, Oxygen 27.65% Hydrogen 10.50%. Determine the emperical formula of the compound. [C=12 O=16 H=1] [10 marks]
2 (a) Explain why an inflated balloon expands in warm water. (2 marks)
State Boyle’s law. [4 marks]
Give the mathematical expression of Boyle’s law [2marks]
Sketch the graphical
representation of Boyle’s law.
[2 marks]
3 (a) State two differences between the properties of solids and gases
[2 marks]
(b) State two assumptions of the kinetic theory of gases. [2 marks]
(c) A 225ππ3 volume of gas is collected at 58℃. What volume would this sample of gas occupy at standard temperature assuming that the pressure is constant? [6 marks]
(c) A 225ππ3 volume of gas is collected at 58℃. What volume would this sample of gas occupy at standard temperature assuming that the pressure is constant? [6 marks]
BIOLOGY SECOND TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2022/2023 SESSION
Axial skeleton is made up of the following
Limbs and limb girdles. (b)lumbar and thoracic vertebrae (c) skull, vertebral column and lumbar vertebrae
Which of the following materials cannot be used for demonstrating the process of osmosis.
Cellophare paper (b) yamtuber (c) pigs bladder (d) cassava tuber
Steady spread of unpleasant odour from dead rat is a physical process called
Cyclosis (b) diffusion (c) osmosis (d) plasmolysis.
The simplest level of organisation is found in (a)Tissue (b) cell (c) organ (d) system
5. Enzyme function best in an acidic medium (a) maltase (b) Amylase (c) pepsin (d) ptyalin
6. The following are living organism except (a) Tilapia (b) rhizopus (c) club moss (d) virus
7. The first stable product formed during photosynthesis is (a) starch (b) lipid (c) glucose (d) oxygen
8. The organism that occupies the second trophic level in a food chain is also called the
(a) decomposer (b) producer (c) primary consumer (d) saprophytic
9. A hydrometer measures ------ (a) wind speed (b) turbidity (c) temperature (d) humidity.
10. which of the following biomes is not found in Nigeria
(a) Tundra (b) Tropical rainforest (c) mangrove swamp (d) Guinea savannah.
11. The longest bone in the body is ------ (a) humerus (b) femur (c) tibia (d) scapula.
12. The vitamin required for good eye sight is called (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
13. The wearing away of the top soil by wind or water is called -------
(a) erosion (b) cultivation (c) aeration (d) leaching .
14. which of the following structures is not a skeletal material--- (a) chitin (b) cartilage (c) bone (d) muscles
15. The teeth used for tearing and cutting are
(a) canine and molar (b) premolar and incisors (c) molar and incisors (d) canine and incisors.
16. which of the following juices contains the enzyme ptyalin.
(a) gastric juice (b) pancreatic juice (c) succus (d) saliva
17. Homodont dentition are found in all the following except
(a) man (b) fish (c) frog (d) lizard
18. which of these is defined as association in which the host is harmed.
(a) commensalism (b) mutualism (c) parasitism (d) Saprophytism.
19. which one of the following is a vector of disease causing micro- organism
(a) grass hopper (b) housefly (c) butterfly (d) tapeworm.
20. The cartilage that make the pinnae is called.
(a) hyaline cartilage (b) fibro cartilage (c) smooth cartilage (d) elastic cartilage.
21. which of the following vertebrae provides articulating surface for the ribs
(a) thoracic (b) lumbar (c) cervical (d) sacral
22. which of the following factors may not affect living organisms in an aquatic habitat.
(a) humidity (b) light (c) turbidity (d) temperature .
23. science is useful in the following except
(a) agriculture (b) medicine (c) construction (d) lawmaking
24. The statement that all living things are made up of cell was first made by
(a) Robert hooke (b) mathias schleidein and theodor schwann (c) felix dujardin (d) von-mohl
25. which of the following statement is common to plants only
(a) green plants carry out photosynthesis (b) animals have fix number of part which are usually compact. (c) they posses special sense organ (d) growth is definite
26. which of the following organism is at a tissue level of organisation
(a) hydra (b) amoeba (c) paramecium (d) mango tree.
27. carbondioxide is expelled out of the living by a process known as
(a) osmosis (b) transpiration (c) diffusion (d) translocation
28. which of the following parts of the skeleton does not have a protective function
(a) Ribs (b) carpals (c) skull (d) pelvis
29. muscles are attached to bones by means of
(a) tendons (b) ligaments (c) cartilage (d) nerves.
30. The thoracic vertebrae differs from all the others vertebrae by the possession of
(a) long neural spine (b) odontoid process (c) vertebraterial canal (d) large centrum
31. which of the following is a biotic components of an ecosysytem
(a) soil (b) rainfall (c) light (d) fungi.
32. All the available places on earth whch support life constitute the
(a) lithosphere (b) atmosphere (c) biosphere (d) hydrosphere
33. which of the following natural resources is most readily available to all organism
(a) oil (b) water (c) air (d) food .
34. The xylem elements perform the function of transport but they also help support plants because they (a) Are internally located (b) Are tubular (c) have rigid thick walls (d) constantly absorb water
35. which of the following pairs of tissues is responsible for strengthening the plants
(a) phloem and epidermis (b) parenchyma and cambium (c) collenchyma and sclerenchyma (d) collenchyma and cambium
36. which of the supporting tissue in plants is responsible for the conduction of water from the soil
(a) phloem (b) xylem (c) parenchyma (d) cambium
37. excessive loss of water from the leaf is prevented by
(a) vascular bundle (b) cuticle (c) midrib (d) parenchyma
38. The total number of bones in adult human body is
(a) 206 (b) 270 (c) 200 (d) 33
39. Autotrophs are also described as
(a) consumers (b) decomposers (c) carnivores (d)producers
40. which of the following pairs of organism are photosynthetic
(a) amoeba and paramecium (b) volvox and rhizopus (c) chlamydomonas and euglena (d) nostoc and plasmodium.
SECTION B: INSTRUCTION – ANSWER QUESTION 1 AND ANY OTHER 2.
1a. mention 5 importance of water 1b. write 5 roles of protein in the body.
2a. mention the bones of the vertebral column and their numbers in order.
2b. mention 5 functions of skeleton to human body.
3a. Define dentiton 3b. mention the 4 type of mammalian teeth.
3c. write the dental formular of man.
4a. explain population.
4b. explain the following terms
biosphere
community
ecosystem
lithosphere
5a. Define enzymes.
5b. state 6 characteristics of enzymes. 5c. mention 2 enzymes that act on protein.
Civic Education
Section A: Insruction; Answer all the questions in this section
1,Democracy define as ----- A. The government of the people by the people and for the community B The govern of the people by the people and for the Africa
2. The democratic system of government is combine with.--------A Executive Lagilatives and Police B Executive Legislatives and Judiciary C Executives Legislatives and Army D Executive Legislatives and Civil defence
3. Which among the following is not a good values.-- A Honesty. B. cheating. C. Hard working. D. respect
4. Positive values. Include the following; A selflessness. B Integrity. C. Orderliness. D All of the above.
5. How many types of democracy do we have A 4 B 5 C 2 D 6
6. Community service exist in various forms among them are—A. cleaning of the environment. B cultivating the environment. C demolish of the environment. D cutting the trees of the environment
7.All the following are the chracteristics of democracy except.---A petiodic . B Rule of Law. C Curruption. D free and fair election
8. How many Senetors do we have---- A 101 B 106 C 1 9 . D 111 .
9. The NYSC programme was introduced in year. A 1979. B 1973. C1980. D A 1977.
10 General Yakubu Gawon; military head of state from. A. Adamawa. B Bauchi C. Lagos D. Plateau.
11 How many hous of Representative do we have in country; A 350 . . B 350 . . C 340. D 311.
12. In Nigeria there are -----------------political zones A 8 . B 4 C 7.6 D5
13. HIV virus infects only----------------------A animal B man’s cells C human cells D none of the above.
14. The Nigerian ruling is,--------------------A PDP. B APC C NNPP D LP
15. There are --------------Local government in the country A 776 B 765 C 774 D 780
16. preventives measure agaist HIV and AIDS-------------------------- A having sex with many partners B. having sex befor marriage C using condom D having sex outside marriage.
17. All the following are not the causes f HIV and AIDS except-----------A shaking of hands B eating the same p[ate C sleeping together D having sex with affected person.
18. HIV and AIDS was fist detected in Africa through--------A Ghana B Kenya C Zinbabuwe. D S/Africa.
19.In Nigeria AIDS virus was discovered in Lagos in year ------------A.1970 B 1976. C 1982. D 1993.
20. The name of the princincipal is ------.A Mal Sani Usman Okuru. B. Malam Usman Muhammad Okuru. C Malam Ibrahim Usman Okuru. D Malam Usman Isah Okuru.
21 Community services can be ----- --------A. A cleaning of environment. B building estate. C building a general hospital. D building a university
22 NYSC mean;---A matoinal youth service commity. B national youth service corp. C national youth service center. D national youth service corprative.
23. The numbers of localgovernment in Nigeria are --------------------. A 787. B 780. C 765. D 774.
24. The Minister of Abuja is----. A Adamu Adamu. B Muhammad Musa Bello. C Musa Isah Bello. D Muhammad Aminu Bello.
25. All the following are youth empowerment skills except-----.A. driving skills. B. drilling borehole. C commucative skills. D listening skills.
26. How many types of community service do you know-----------------------.A two. B. five. C. Three. D. six.
27. Empowered youths will be able to.-----------------.A. to becames responsible and successful adults. B. he can read and write. C. to becomes a trader. D. to becomes lazy adults.
28.The 2023 general election was conducted in ----------of the month of April A 28 B25 C 27 D 29.
29 Youth empowerment was introduced ----A to reduce unemployement among the youths. B to produce local manufuctures. C to educate them to university level. D to give them jobs.
30. Youth empowerment is a programme introduced by the government of -------.A Muhammadu Buhari. B Ibrahim Babangida. C Olusegun Obasanjo. D Yakubu Gawon.
31. The political zones in Nigeria are---.A 6. B 2. C 8. D 5.
32. The Vice Principal Admin Name- A. Mrs Ikeliani.B. mrs Owokwanta, C. mrs Suzie Dogo D. Hajiya Bolanle.
33. Citizinship education teaches us. A our rights as students. B our rights and responsibilities as citizens of a country. C our rights to belong a school. D our rights to be in this school.
34 All the following are pendamic diseases except. A abola. B HIV and AIDS. C corona virus. D diahorea.
35.The name of our labour master is----.A Mr Joseph Ndah. B Mr Oyinlola Robert. Mr Saka Shitu. D Mr Chris Adegher
36. The three tiers of governmement means A Federal government state and Judiciary B Federal state and Excutives C Federal state local government D Federal state legislatives
37. HIV and DIDS can be transimited from mother to child------------.
38. All folliwng are disadvantages OF democracy except.A corruption B Rigging election C Accountability D Violence
39 The full name of INEC is ---------A Independent National Electry Commission B Independent Nigerian Electoral Commission C Independent National Electoral Commission D independent Natural Ellectotral Commision
40 The 2023 newly elected president --------A Atiku Abubakar B Rabiu Musa Kwankoso C Pater Obi D Bola Ahmad Tinibu.
Section B answer only 3 questios
1.[ a] What is Civic Education ? [ b]. Mention 3 reasons why we study CivicEducation in our school .
2. [a] List 5 positive and 5 negatives values. [ b] Write short note on: Justice, Honesty, Selflesness.
3.[ a] Define U D H R? [ b] Give the brief historical backgraound of UDHR
4.[a] Define Representative democracy [b] List four characteristics of democracy
5. [a] List seven 7 present political parties you nknow [b] Drow two logos out of the parties
ECONOMICS SECOND TERM EXAMINATION 2022/2023 SESSION.
Section A (Objective). Answer all Questions in this section
(1)The advantage of sole proprietorship is as follow A. It is always successful B. Continuity is no problem C. Control and supervision is under one man D. Funds are easy to obtain
(2) Which of these would NOT increase population of a country A. Increase in death rate B. Decrease in birth rate C. Emigration D. Migration
(3) The optimum population of a country is reached when A. All factor of production have been fully employed B. The productive effort per man is at its highest with a given volume of resources C. The total population of a country increases D. The natural resources of a country increases
(4) Bondholders are treated more favorably than shareholders because
A. They are not liable for the company’s losses B. They greater voice in the electing board of the directors C. They control the management D. None of the above
(5) Which of the following is not true of the theory of optimum population? A. It is possible for densely populated country to be underpopulated if it has insufficient labour to make the most effective use of its other factors B. The quantity of labour which combined with the other factors gives the minimum output is known as optimum population C. The quantity of labour which combined with the other factors, gives the maximum output, is known as optimum population D. The test for over-population is whether it exceed the optimum
(6) The country will be over populated when
A. the rate of birth is high B. the death rate is low C. the growth rate is high D. population is increasing more than resources in the country
(7) Which is NOT a cause of high population growth in Nigeria?
A. Family planing Unit of Nigeria B. Improve medical facilities C. Reduction in death rate D. Improve hygiene
(8) Which of the following is the standard concept for measuring and analyzing population growth? A. The rate of natural increase B. The net migrate C. The rate of population increase D. All of the above
(9) Among the disadvantages of the one-man business is the fact that______ A. its capital may not be increased without government permission B. the proprietor is personally liable for the firm's debts C. the proprietor is not able to obtain credit D. the proprietor may not sue for bad debts
(10) The problem of conducting census include A. high rate of rural-urban migration
B. poor geographical distribution of population C. high birth rate in the country
D. poor town planning in urban areas
(11) Organization and entrepreneurship are vested in different persons in a
A. cooperative society B. sole proprietorship C. partnership D. public company
(12) The age distribution of a country's population is shown below. Use the information is answer the question below.
Age group (YEARS)
Population
0 - 15 16 - 40 41 - 60 Over 60
30% 45% 15% 10%
What is the percentage of the working population? A.75% B. 60% C. 45% D. 15%
(13) The age distribution of a country's population is shown below. Use the information is answer the question below.
Age group (YEARS)
Population
0 - 15 16 - 40 41 - 60 Over 60
30% 45% 15% 10%
What is the dependency ratio? A 2:3 B. 3:2 C. 1:2 D. 6:1
(14) Cooperative societies are formed mainly to
A.. break the monopolies of private companies B. encourage thrift and credit among members C. assist producers to maximize their profits D. promote and maintain the welfare of members
(15) Which of the following industries will add more value to primary products?
A. Construction industry B. Processing industry C. Mining industry D. Service industry
(16) A disadvantage of a joint-stock company is
A. unlimited liability B. limited liability C. lack of continuity when a shareholder dies D. limited control in management by shareholders
(17) A positive effect of a rapid population increase is
A. an excessive budget deficit B. a reduction in standard of living C. a wider market for goods and services D. a higher dependency ratio
(18) Increasing national income without effective control of population size in a country can lead to
A. higher per capita income B. increase in poverty C. increased outflow of aid D. underutilization of resources
(19) Positive checks as envisaged by Thamos Malthus can be prevented if
A. date rate is reduced B. marriage is abolished C. more hospitals are built D. more restraint is adopted
(20) An industry is described as a group of firms
A. that provides jobs for many people B. which uses advance technology in production C. which produces similar products D. that provides jobs for few people
(21) Equity shares form the bulk of the capital of a?
A. private firm B. public company C. statutory company D. limited partnership
(22) If a state owned firm is sold through the stock market, the organization becomes?
A. partnership B. private company C. public limited company D. public corporation
(23) The system of agriculture which involves the cultivation of crops and rearing of animals for family consumption only is termed?
A. peasant farming B. plantation agriculture C. commercial farming D. subsistent farming
(24) Which of the following is an implication of a large population
A. decrease in crime rate B. increase in food supply C. decrease in standard of living D. decrease in cost of living
(25) In a partnership, the conduct of members is guided by
A. a memorandum of understanding B. the article of partnership C. an article of association D. a partnership constitution
(26) One feature of a growing population
A. increase in the number of young people B. increase in the number of old people C. decrease in the dependent population D. decrease in the life expectancy
(27) Efficiency of labour in a country is determined by the following factor except the
A. social attitude to work B. education and training C. working conditions of workers D. total population
(28) Which of the following business organizations is likely to experience disagreements between management and shareholders
A. co-operative society B. sole trader C. partnership D. joint-stock company
(29) Which of the following features distinguishes a public limited company from a private limited company
A. perpetual existence B. limited liability C. legal entity D. sales of shares to the public.
(30) One reason for low agricultural productivity in most West African countries is that?
A. farmers are not capable of producing cash crops B. it does not provide income to farmers with large families C. farmers find it difficult getting help from financial institutions D. it is not the only source of raw materials for agro-based industries
(31) The movement of labour from one grade to an entirely different grade is an example of? A. industrial labor mobility B. horizontal occupational mobility C. vertical occupational mobility D. geographical mobility
(32) In developing countries, a larger percentage of the labour force is employed in the
A. trade sector B. tertiary sector C. primary sector D. secondary sector
(33) An industry is best described as A. firm that sells a set of closely related commodities B. a factory that produces different lines of product C. a group of firms that sells a closely related set of products D. industrial concern that is into production and selling of goods
(34) Livestock production in West Africa is hindered mainly by
A. Inadequate demand B. use of traditional implements C. land tenure system D. pests and diseases
(35) A declining population is one in which the population is A. experiencing a high rate of emigration B. made up of large number of old people C. not producing enough goods D. not contributing enough to the national income
(36) Examples of joint stock banks are A. commercial banks B. co-operative credit societies C. central banks D. development banks
(37) Which of the following is not an effect of the discovery of mineral resources in an area? A. increase in wealth B. overcrowding C. increase in crime rate D. under population
(38) A debenture holder earns A. commission B. profits C. fixed interest D. quasi-rent
(39) Which of the following controls a limited liability company? A. the general manager B. the managing director C. tax payers D. the board of directors
(40) The difference between the number of immigrants and emigrants is A. natural growth rate B. natural increase C. net migration D. census
SECTION B: Answer any three questions of your choice.Question 1 is compulsory.
(1a)What is census? (1b)Why do governments conduct population census?
(2)Write a short note on the following
(a)sole proprietorship (b)shares ©debentures (d) partnership
(3a)Define the term limited liability
(3b)Describe four differences better public enterprise and private enterprise
(3c)Outline three sources of finance available to sole proprietorship
(4a)What is labor force? (4b)Discuss the factors affecting the efficiency of labour
(5)What form of business enterprise would you recommend for a tailor? Give reasons for your answer.
Physical Education
ECTION A: Instruction: Answer all questions from this section
The exchange zone in relay race is......... (a) 17 m (b) 16m (c) 15m (d) 11m (e) 20m
_______ is referred to as a displacement of bone at the joint. (a) Strain (b) Fracture(c) Dislocation (d) Sprain (e) Brain.
_______is the science that studies the structure of the body (a) Kinesiology (b) Physiology (c) Anatomy (d) Physiotherapy (e) Psychology
The first National Sport festival was held in the year ______ at _________. (a) 1973, Lagos (b)
1972, Ibadan (c) 1971, Benin (d) 1970, Kaduna (e) 1974, Kogi
_______ is the one that supplies all substance needed by the body (a) Nutrition (b) good diet (c) Fish & meat (d) pee-game meat (e) Carbohydrates
The organ in the alimentary track that is responsible for digestion and absorption is known as
________ (a) large intestine (b) Liver (c) Stomach (d) Duodenum (e) Small intestine
The process by which the body takes in and utilizes food is known as ______ (a) Circulation (b) Nutrition (c) Metabolism (d) Respiration (e) Catabolism
Glucose is absorbed and stored on the ______ After digestion (a) Pancreas (b) lungs (c) kidney (d) liver (e) Intestine
The release of Energy in the absence of oxygen is known as _____ (a) Aerobic respiration (b) cell respiration (c) Anaerobic respiration (d) Adenosine triphosphate (e) Adenosine triphosphate
Internal respiration is otherwise known as ________ (a) Tissue Respiration (b) Anaerobic respiration (c) External (d) Artificial respiration (e) Aerobic respiration
In which of the following do athletes NOT keep to their lanes throughout the race? (a) 400m (b) 1,500m (c) 800m (d) 200m (e) 100m
How many take over boxes are in 4 x100 m relay? (a) Agility (b) Power (c) Cardio respiration (d) Flexibility (e) speed
The following are conditions that influence physical fitness EXCEPT............... (a) Malnutrition (b) occupation (c) Sex (d) Knowledge (e) Attitude
Which of the following is NOT correct about a good posture? (a) Gives a good life (b) Reflects the organs of the body properly (c) Helps people to work effectively (d) Gives a good life (e) Aligns
A volleyball game is started with a _____ (a) Jump (b) Services (c) Pass (d) Shot (e) Throw
The term 'locomotors' means ____ (a) Movement (b) Standing (c) Sitting (d) Crying (e) Shouting.
In a first aid treatment, pins are used for _______ (a) Treating fresh wound ( b) Writing names of injured athlete (c) Holding bondages in position (d) Decoration of athletes (e) Taking record of blood pressure
Fracture is an injury of the _______ only (a) Joints (b) Bones (c) Mouth (d) Nose (e) Eyes
The best method of starting a sprint race by short athlete is _____ start (a) Elongated (b) Medium (c) Sit up ( d) Bunch (e) Jump
Performance related to physical fitness component include the following EXCEPT ____ (a) Agility (b) Balance (c) Endurance (d) Power (e) Speed
Violence in sport can be caused by _____? (a) Knowledge of game rules (b) Fair play (c) Match officials (d) Neutrality (e) Unbridled fanaticism
Calisthenics means ________ (a) Exercise done at will (b) Exercise done at rhythmically (c) Gymnastic done with apparatus (d) Individual gymnastic (e) Modern gymnastics
The lateral curvature of the spine when observed from the rear, describe a postural defect called_________ (a) Athletic foot (b) Flat foot (c) Kyphosis (d) Lordosis (e) scoliosis
Movements are possible at the following joints EXCEPT ____ (a) Ball and basket (b) Gliding (c) hinge (d) Pivot (e) suture
The first all African games took place in______ (a) Algeria ( b) Congo ( c) Ghana ( d) Nigeria (e) South Africa
An example of narcotic drugs is_____ (a) Barbiturates (b) Cocaine (c) Marijuana (d) Morphine (e) Valium
The following are type of muscular contraction in the body EXCEPT ______ (a) Auxotonic (b) Eccentric (c) Isomeric (d) Isotonic (e) Quadriceps
Endomorphic individual perform well in the following sporting events EXCEPT ___ (a) Cycling (b) Discus throw (c) Hammer throw (d) Shot put (e) Weight lifting
The following movement are possible at a joint EXCEPT _____ (a) Abduction (b) Adduction (c) Coasting (d) Pronation (e) Supination
The structure that holds two bones ends at a joint called _____ a Fiber (b) Ligament (c) Skeleton (d) Synovial fluid (e) Tendon
The Roman Empire fell to the Teutonic barbarians because of _____ (a) Good character and high integrity (b) Moral weakness and lack of exercise (c) Peloponnesian war (d) Providing forum to seek for peace (e) Violation of sacred truce
Recreation activities must have the following characteristics EXCEPT ____ (a) compulsory participation (b) Inherent satisfaction (c) Leisure activities (d) Social acceptability (e) Worthwhileness
Which of the following is not an outdoor recreational activities? (a) Canoeing (b) Hiking (c) Jogging (d) Painting (e) Swimming
Which of the following is not a fundamental value of physical education? (a) Development of individual maladjustment (b) Enjoyment and fun (c) Mental alertness (d) Physical fitness (e) Social adjustment
In selecting recreational activities, the following factors must be considered EXCEPT __________ (a) Needs (b) Age (c) Interest (d) Financial status (e) Health
Which of the following ancient nation held physical education in high esteem? (a) Britain (b) Ethiopia (c) Greece (d) Japan (e) Sweden
Competition among state continents within a country are called ______ (a) Continental (b) Local (c) Sub-regional (d) International (e) National
A record is broken in athletics if ____ (a) All the athlete fail to finish the race ( b) an athlete runs out of the lanes (c) An athlete runs over an opponent (d) The existing record is surpassed (e) The official announces a faulty record
The game of volleyball was invented by _____ (a) Gut Muths (b) Jams Naismith (c) Konrad Koch (d) Willian Morgan
The human skeleton has the following features EXCEPT ____ (a) A rigid framework (b) Made of cartilage (c) Made from adipose cells (d) Formed from bones
SECTION B: Theory: Answer three question from this section. Question one (1) is compulsory
1a. Draw a well labeled diagram of the human skeleton. 1b. State five functions of the human skeleton
2a. Explain traditional sports? 2b. Enumerate five values of traditional sports
2c. State three contribution of A.J Ekpenigim in the development of physical education in Nigeria.
3a. Enumerate five differences between national sports championship and national sports festival. 3b. Explain national sports championship. 3c. Mention 5 significance if Tertiary games
4a. What is circulatory system? 4b. State five differences between arteries and veins.
4c. Outline 6 functions of blood.
5a. What is athletics? 5b. List four categories of Traditional sport mention 2 examples under each categories 5c. State five characteristics recreation.
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