Wednesday, December 13, 2023

SS 2 Examinations Psst Questions (Home Fun for December 2023)

 ENGLISH LANGUAGE SS2

SECTION A: INSTRUCTION; ANSWER ONE QUESTION IN THIS SECTION

YOUR ESSAY SHOULD NOT BE LESS THAN 450 WORDS

1. Write a letter to the chairman of the PTA of your school suggesting three ways in which parents can work together with teachers to create a better learning environment in the school.

2. You have been invited to take part in an inter-school debate, the topic of which is schooling in a village is more advantageous than schooling in a city. Write your speech for or against the motion.

3. Write a story to illustrate the saying: AS ONE MAKES ONE’S BED, SO ONE MUST LIE ON IT.

4. You are in the final year in secondary school. Write a letter to your uncle, who is an influential person in the society, telling him what you intend to do next and asking for assistance.

5. write an essay titled; INSECURITY IN NIGERIA

SECTION B (COMPREHENSION)

READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS ON IT.

The mansion by the roadside in my village reminds me of a similar sight in the state capital, three decades ago. Standing conspicuously, by the highway in the heart of the city. The mansion posed a bold challenge to road users. It belonged to chief Koko who was regarded as untouchable in his community. Nobody dared step on his toes. Motorists has learnt to steer clear of it. it was generally assumed that moving close to it could cost one one’s life.

Then came a governor who decided to widen all the major roads in the capital city. He stressed that this would involve the demolition of buildings that fell within twenty metres from the centre of the road. However, although the governor also stressed that compensations would be paid, chief Koko was not impressed. He made it clear that nothing should tamper with his mansion warning that whoever defied him risked dire consequences.

Not long after the governor’s official proclamation, newspaper reporters had a field day speculating on the unprecedented confrontation with chief. With time, news filtered out that he asserted that whoever dared him would certainly end up where other like them had gone. The message was clear-defiance meant death so, reporters were pleading for a new route to circumvent the mansion. However, the governor made it clear that there would be no retreat.

Before long, work started on the project. One of the first casualties was a post office that was just some metres within the specified distance. It was cut into two. Soon, the frontage of a school nearby also followed. But, it was assumed that things would be different with the mansion whose owner tolerated no effrontery. Day by day, the project moved closer to the mansion, with the heavy machine levelling one structure after another. Then, when it was clear that the mansion was next in line, the driver of the bulldozer requested to governor to spare his life since children were still very young.

The following morning, people got a shocker; the governor himself showed up at the site and asked for the key to the bulldozer, ready to assume the role of the driver. The driver, surveying the possible consequence, tearfully climbed up and pleaded that the governor should please care for his children after his demise. The governor announced that if anything was to happen, he not the driver , would be the target.

So, the driver got to work and the mansion collapsed like a pack of cards. Press photographers went to town with the cameras, hoping to capture chief Koko in action. But nothing unusual happened, and soon the whole structure became a rubble.

The aftermath? everybody thought either or both men would soon belong to the great beyond. But this much I know, that governor is still around; and so is the driver.

What opinion did people have of chief Koko?

What does the expression, unprecedented confrontation tell us about the governor?

Why was it necessary to demolish buildings?

When the driver said that his children were still very young, what did he imply?

……..people got a shocker. Why was the governor’s action a shocker?

What did people expect chief Koko to do after the demolition of his mansion?

Not long after the governor’s official proclamation. i. what grammatical name is given to this expression as it is used in the passage?. ii. What is its function?

Quote a simile used in the sixth paragraph of the passage. 

For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and which can replace it as it is used in the passage;

i. Assumed ii. Retreat iii. Specified iv. Showed up v. Collapsed

SECTION C; SUMMARY

READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS ON IT.

Every normal human being would want to put his or her feet up once in a while and relax, but, obviously, one cannot relax all the time. A little work does not kill. Rather, it keeps one active and mentally alert.

Some people think that the invention of robots is the best thing that ever happened to man. They are convinced that the invention has saved the day because robots are ideal workers who work without complaining or getting tired. Robots never reveal company secrets for any reason – corruption, fame or blackmail.

The admirers of robots think that once a robot is programmed, it can do any piece of work with precision over a long period without slowing down, getting bored or even going on break or vacation. Robots can be made to perform any task. They do not grumble usually demand. They also work under conditions which human beings would not accept due to either incapability or attitude.

One good thing about the robot is that any of its damaged parts can be replaced for work to go on effectively. On the other hand, if a human being loses a vital part of the body, that part may not be replaced for work to go on as effectively as before.

There is no doubt at all that the robot is useful but I strongly believe that the human being is more efficient that the robot in many ways. Human beings are sensitive, thinking beings who are flexible and can therefore control their actions. Thus, they can perform more fuctions than robots. Since human beings can think, discriminate and make value judgements, they can solve problems on the spur of the moment. The robot, on the other hand, cannot do this because what it has been programmed for is all that it is capable of doing. If a robot is wrongly programmed, it will continue to produce the wrong result until its programme is corrected.

  The human being can take the initiative in many things. He can communicate or even call for assistance when need be, which the robot cannot do. The human being can be appealed to, to make some crucial changes, he can also learn from observing what goes on the modify what he is doing.

It is clear that even though robots are useful, they are deficient in many ways, and therefore cannot have an advantage over human beings. In crisis, the robot cannot face the challenge. It neither reacts not reflects.

The robot is designed and programmed by human beings. How then can the created be superior to the creator? Robots are created to assist human beings and relieve them of some of their burdens, not to take over completely from them.

In three sentences, one for each, state why the admirers of robots think that robots are more efficient than human beings.

In three sentences, one for each, state three advantages which the human being has over the robot.

SECTION D  (OBJECTIVE )

From the list of words or group of words lettered  A to D, choose the option that best completes the sentence.

I_____  have to take up the challenge yesterday . (A) didn’t  (B) shouldn’t  (C) wouldn’t  (D) couldn’t .

Nobody ______  to die young . (A) wants (B)  is wanting  (C) will be wanting (D) want

_____  is good for the heart . (A) walk (B) is walking  (C)  walks (D)

_______  ,I was a tomboy . (A) Growing up (B) Grow—up  (C) As growing (D) A growing 

Nobody _____  anything good from him. (A) expects  (B) expect  (C) expecting (D)  to expect.

I_____  there before him.  (A) go  (B)  be  (C) am  (D)  got 

We _____  from the tribe.  (A) are coming  (B) Come   (C) be (D)  came 

James and John cooked the food all by ______  (A) theyselves (B) theirselves (C) ourselves  (D) themselves .

He boxers sized ______  up.  (A) each other (B) one another (C)  every other  (D)  all other.

 The group helped ______  with their essays.   (A)  each other  (B) one another  (C) another  (D) each one.


From the words lettered  A to  D  below each of the following sentences , choose the word that is opposite in meaning  to the underlined word.


(11)By nature  armed robbers are  ruthless , I have seen a ______   one among  them , (A)  humane  (B)  barbarous  (C) Ferocious (D)  mean . 

(12)  The taxi driver slowed while overtaking the lorry when the proper thing to do was for him to have _____  (A)  throttled   (B)  accelerated  (C)  expedited  (D) despatched .

(13) The  probationary   workers   do not have same right as ______  staff  (A) approved  (B)  dismissed  (C)  Postponed  (D)  confirmed 

(14)  The journey by road _____  where the rail  journey   ended  (A)  concluded  (B)  originated  (C) commenced  (D)  indifferent  

(15)    Instead  of  laughing about this serious  matter ,you should be  (A)  whimpering  (B) sober (C)  Indifferent  (D) bitter 

(16)  After years of hostility the two communities  now live in_____  (A)  amity  (B) security (C) enmity  (D)  bondage 

(17) Mrs. gbogbo  is always moody  while her husband is forever _____  (A) cheerful  (B)  willing (C) tender  (D)  loving 

(18) The judge ruled  that the first transaction was valid  while the second  was _______  (A) abnormal  (B)  legal  (C)  valueless   (D)  Void 

(19)  Musa” s _____   contrasts with his brother s indolence  ( A)  indulgence  (B) laziness ( C) labour  (D) abstinence 

(20)  Elders are expected to be ______  where youths are green  (A) rash  (B) red   (C)  experience  (D) Callous.

In each of the following sentences , the word that receives  the emphatic stress  is written in  CAPITAL  LETTERS from  the questions letter  A to D, choose the one to which the given sentence is the appropriate answer.

21. Tunde is visiting his UNCLE in Abuja next month? (a) is Tunde visiting his aunt in Abuja next month?  (b) Is Tunde visiting his uncle in kaduna next month? (c) is Tunde visiting his uncle in Abuja Next week?  (d) Is Olu visiting his uncle in Abuja next month?

22. Yemi scrubs the floor every SATURDAY (a) Does Ngozi scrub the floor every Saturday? (b) Does Yemi sweep the floor every Saturday? (c) Does Yemi scrub the floor every Saturday? (d) Does Yemis scrub the wall every Saturday?

23. The PASSENGER boat docked at Accra yesterday (a) did the passenger boat dock at Accra last week?   (b) Did the cargo boat dock at Accra yesterday?  (c) Did the passenger boat dock at Tema yesterday?  (d) Did the cargo boat sail from Accra yesterday?

24. Kemis’s watch is made of GOLD (a) is Bisi’s watch made of gold?  (b) is Kemi’s necklace make of gold?  (c) Is kemi’s watch plated with gold?  (d) Is Kemi’s watch made of silver?

25. The FINAL match of the hockey competition was exciting (a) was the final match of the hockey competition boring?  (b) Was the final match of the football competition excting? (c) Was the preliminary match of the hockey competition exciting?  (d) Was the final match of the football competition boring?

From the words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is used in the sentence.

26. The criminal was incarcerated. (a) Arrested  (b) Pardoned  (c) Imprisoned  (d) cautioned

27. The manager son found out that my sister was a competent typist. (a)  Patient (b) capable (c) hardworking (d) careless.

28. The inception of his administration, the Governor was very popular. (a) End (b) beginning (c) dissolution (d) peak

29. The business man anticipated the collapse of the bank. (a) Prevented (b) caused (c) foresaw   (d) pre-empted

30. The plaintiff was dissatisfied with the decision of the court. (a) Solicitor (b) accused (c) complainant (d) respondent

In the following passages, the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Against each number in the list below each passages.

PASSAGE

Jide bought his car last year and now there is the need to renew the ____31___.  The first time he went to Mr. Olumide, the _____32_____, he was advised t0 ____33_____a ___34____rather than a ____35____ cover. Mr. Olumide had carefully explained the merits and demerits to both types, which included the fact that one was far more ___36___ than the other.

Now Jide has cause to smile because of his entitlement to a claim____37___.being a careful owner-driver, he had not been involved in any ____38____during the period. Unfortunately, the same could not be said for his friend, Jackson, whose car was a total ____39____after a ___40___with a truck.

                      A                     B                                      C                                       D

31.       Roadworthiness                    chassis                   insurance policy                     vehicle dues

32.     Road superintendent        insurance broker    drawing instructor                  licensing officer

33.      Take out                                take up                               take on                          take in 

34.     Yearly license            yearly premium              cheaper deal              comprehensive policy              35       second rate                      first party                             third party                         third   rate

36.     Expensive                      prohibitive                          exclusive                          impressive 

37.      Deduction                          bonus                            dividend                               reward   

38.        Incident                            event                              accident                             quarrel

39.      Wash—out                    write-up                            knock-out                        write- off

40.     Collision                      collusion                            contact                           confrontation





MATHEMATICS   SS2     TIME ALLOWED: 2 HOURS

Choose the correct alternative in section A and answer No 1 and any two questions from section B.

SECTION  A

Given  the  equation  8x – 3y = 5, find the gradient of the line.

  2      b.  8       c.    6        d.  3      


Represent the inequality      -2 ≤ x < 5  on a line graph

                                b.                                   C                                                d. 

        3.What is the value of x in the figure below?      




1200    b 1080.     c. 520    d.  600 

What is the range of values of x that satisfies the inequalities 2x – 1 > 3 and x + 3 < 8 

2 < x < 8    b. 2 < x < 5   c. 1 < x < s    d. -3 < x < 5                          

       

                                

If     P :  Ade is the best student in the class   Q: Ade worn an award

P: Ade is not the best student in the class    and Q: Ade did not win an award, which means as  P →  Q  also P  →  Q. This is : 

Inverse statement    b.   Converse statement     C .Implication   d. Bi- implication

Find the gradient of the  line joining  points P(2,-3) and  Q(-4,5)

2.   b.  -1   c.  1    d.   3

If -5 ≤ x ≤  -3, where x is an integer, find the highest value of x  (a) -2    b.-4     c.-5    d. -3

What is the value of µ in the figure below?




a  720   b. 36 0  c. 400   d. 180

Solve the inequality: 5x + 6 ≥ 3 + 2x (a) x ≤ 1     b. x ≥ -1    c. x ≤ 2   d. x > -1                 

Express 4081.0392 to 2 significant figures. a.   4100   b.   4081.04  c.   4000    d.  4080

11. Find the value of x in the diagram below:

                a.     500   b   1030   c.  950   d,   1000


                  

   

  12.   Find the value of x in the figure

               


300  b  40 0  c    50 0    d.  650 


13. Find the value of x in the equation (x – 3)2 = 16

a. 1 or 10    b . 4 or -2    c. 5 or 3     d. 1 or -10

14 If P stands for: Rain falls in summer and Q stands for: sun shines in the night, then PUQ is:

a.  false  b. true     c.   both true and false     d. indeterminate

15. The length of a chord  of a circle is  16 cm .If  the radius of the circle is 10 cm, find the distance of the chord from the centre of the circle.

a.   7cm   b. 8cm  c. 5.6cm  d. 6cm

16.                         

     

                                             


                                       

       What is the value of     <TUR  in the figure above?

580   b.  650   c.  780    d.  430

        17.  Given that 3x + 7y = 1 and x – 7y = 19, then x + y =

 -2       b.  -3      c    3    d   5

18. Which of the following quadratic equations produces a maximum value for y

a. x 2 – 2x + 6 =0   b   3x + 2  – x2  = 0  c  5x2 – 3x + 6  = 0  d.  x2 – 5x + 6 = 0

Use the diagram below to answer questions 19 and 20                                                        


                                                                                   



19. What is the value of x?

a.   1140     b.  1350   c.  1280    d.   700

20.  What is the value is y?

a.  700    b.    400    c.   500   d.  900.  

21. Find the gradient of a line that passes through (-3, 4)  and (5, 8)

a.     b.      c.      d.  

22,  If  -3 ≤  x  ≤    5 ,which of the following correctly represent the range?

                              b.                                         c.                                       d.  


23. Find the equation of a line passing through points   (-2, 3) and (1, 4)

a. x – 3y + 11 =  0   b.   x + 3y – 11 = 0   c. 3y - x – 9 = 0   d.  x + y + 11 = 0

24. What is the gradient of the line 3x – 2y = 5?

a.        b.        c.          d.    

25.  A compound statement that is always true no matter the truth value is called 

a. contradiction   b.  Tautology    c.  Inverse statement  d. implication

26.What range of values of x satisfies that inequalities 3x-1>5 and x-5<3

a.2<   x <    8       b    -2 <  x  <    5     c.    -1 <  x<  7     d.   -2   < x < 8 

27. What is the equation of a line which passes through the points (3,2) with a gradient of  ?

a. 2x – 3y = 0    b.   2x + 3y = 0     c.   3y = 2x + 1      d.  3y -2x = 0

28.The opposite angles of a Cyclic quadrilateral are :

a. complementary    b.  supplementary    c.  equal in size     d.  alternative

29. If a line is given as 4y + 2x – 3 = 0 ,what is the y intercept of the line?

a.       b.              c          d       

30.  In the circle below, MN is a tangent ,find the value of α



              

a.  840      b.  960       c. 1040      d.  550

31.  The length of a chord of circle is 12cm,if  the chord is 8cm from the centre of the circle, find the radius of the circle

a. 9cm    b.  8cm     c. 7cm   d. 10cm

32. Solve the inequality   >   

a.  x < 10    b. x > 10    c.   x < -10      d.  x > 8

33. The compound statement under conjunction is true only :

a. if two component statements are true    b.  if at least one of the component statement is true

c. if  the two component statements are false   d. if only one of the component statement is true

 In diagram below, |AB| is a diameter of the circle. Use it to answer questions 34 & 35





34. What is the size of x

a.  360    b.    720      c    660    d.  900 

35.  Find  the value of y

540   b. 600      c  900      d    840

36 . Which of the following graphs produces a minimum value?

5x - 2x2 – 2 = 0    b, 8 – 2x2 + 6 =0    c.  3x – 2x2 = 4      d. x2 – 3x + 5 = 0

37. What is the common ratio between the terms of the geometric progression: - 72, - 24, - 8, …?

a.  - 3      b.  –       c.  –      d.   

38. In logical reasoning which of the following not a connective symbol.

a.  <    b.     c. iff    d. 

39.  If the range   -3 ≤ x <  8 is given, where x is an integer , what is the highest value of x ?

a.   8   b.   7   c.  6   d.  9

40. write the converse of the following implication: - 2 > - 4 ⇒ 4 < 16

  a.    – 2 <  - 4  ⇒ 4 > 16   b. 4 > 16 ⇒   – 2 <  - 4        c.   4 < 16 ⇒ - 2 > - 4     d. - 2 > - 4 ⇒ 4 < 16

SECTION B:  Answer question number one and any other two questions from this section.

Copy and complete the graph for the relation y = 2x2 – 5x + 1

Using a scale of 2cm to1 unit on the x-axis and 2cm to 5 units on y-axis, draw a graph of the relation  y = 2x2 – 5x + 1 for -3 ≤ x ≤ 5

Using your graph ,solve the following equations:

2x2 – 5x + 1 = 0

2x2 – 5x - 6 = 0

What is the least value of the function y=2x2 – 5x + 1 and corresponding value of x

For what range of values of x is the function negative

Find the gradient of the tangent at x = 3.

2.a.  if 4 + x ≤ 7 and  9 + x ≥ 7 are given inequalities, find the range of values of x which satisfy both inequalities 

Use number line to illustrate your solution

Find the equation of line that passes through (-5, 4) with a gradient of 

3 a,   From the circle below, find the value  α and β

 Solve graphically the simultaneous inequalities 4x + 3y < 12, y > 0, x > 0 for the integral values of x (leave the require region unshaded.)

4.a  Find the length of a chord of a circle whose radius is  13 cm and whose  distance from the centre of the circle is 5cm

b. Find the equation of a line that passes through the points (-2,-3) and (1, 4)

 above, find the <AOB in terms of a and b




PHYSICS SS 2

SECTION A: Instruction: Answer all objectives and any three theory questions

(1) The vibration resulting from the action of an external periodic force on the motion of a body is called: (A)Forced vibration (B) Damped vibration  (C) Natural vibration (D) Compound vibration (E) Sinusoidal vibration 

(2) A source of sound moves towards a stationary listener. The apparent pitch of the sound is found to be higher than its actual value. This happens because (a) wavelength of the sound increases.  (b) the number of waves received by the listener decreases. (c) the number of waves received by the listener increases

(3) Force acting on two point masses is directly proportional to (a) sum of masses (b) difference of      masses (c) distance between masses (d) product of masses

(4) A radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 600 kHz. If the speed of light in air is 3 x 108 ms-1, calculate the wavelength of the radio wave (A) 22.0 x 103m     (B)  5.0 x 102m   (C)  5.0 x 105m  (D) 11.8 x 1011m

(5) The sound of minimum frequency emitted by a vibrating string is not termed as (a) first harmonic(b) first overtone(c) fundamental tone(d) none of the above 

(6) Which of the following is not a mechanical wave?  (A) Wave propagated in stretched string  (B) Waves in closed pipes  (C) Radio waves  (D) Water waves (E)  Sound waves

(7) A wave sent out from a source is reflected back to the source in 1.0 x 10-3s. If the velocity of the wave is 3.0 x 108ms-1, the distance of the reflecting surface from the source is   (A) 1.5 x 102m   (B)  3.0 x 102m  (C) 3.0 x 105m   (D)  1.5 x 105m  (E) 6.0 x 105m.

(8) If V is the velocity of a wave, ( its wavelength and T its period, the V, ( and T are related by the expression

(A)  (  =  VT     (B)  f=  (C)   T2  =  (V   (D)  V =  (T     (E)  v =      

(9) An image which can be formed on a screen is said to be  (A)  Virtual   (B) Blurred  (C)  Inverted   (D) Erect   (E)  Real

(10) A transparent rectangular block 5.0cm thick is placed on a black dot. The dot when viewed from above is seen 3.0 cm from the top of the block. Calculate the refractive index of the material of the block. (A)          (B)        (C)      (D)        (E)    

(11) The direction of a light ray changes as it passes from one medium to another. The phenomenon is called.

(A)  diffraction   (B)  Reflection   (C)  Dispersion  (D)  refraction  (E) deviation 

(12) A boy standing some distance from the foot of a tall cliff claps his hands and hears an echo 0.5s later. If the speed of sound in air is 340ms-1 how far is he from the cliff? (A) 17m    (B)  34m  (C) 85m    (D)  170m   (E) 680m

(13) The speed of sound travelling in various media increases in the following correct order:   (A) iron bar, air, water      (B) iron bar, water, air (C) air, water, iron bar   (D)  water, iron bar, air   (E) water, air, iron bar

(14) A source of sound produces waves in air of wavelength 1.65m. If the speed of sound in air is 330ms-1, the period of vibration in second is (A) 200    (B) 2.0   (C) 0.5    (D) 0.02    (E) 0.005

(15) Why does the sound from an enclosed bell jar gradually fade away as the jar is gradually evacuated?  (A) The sound is forced out   (B) The pressure within the jar is reduced   (C) There is no more material medium  (D) The temperature is reduced   (E) The sound waves are absorbed by the inner walls.

(16) A ship’s echo sounder sends out a supersonic note which is received back at the ship 4 seconds after. If the velocity of sound through water is 1500ms-1. What is the depth of the seabed?   (A) 300m    (B) 1500m (C) 600m

(D)  4500m    (E) 750m

(17) How much heat is required to convert 20g of ice at 0oC to water at the same temperature? (Specific latent heat of ice = 335Jg-1). (A) 1.35 x 103J     (B) 5.38 x 103J) (C) 6.70 x 103J (D) 7.06 x 103J 

(18) Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(A) Evaporation takes place only at the surface of a liquid. (B) Boiling takes place throughout the volume of a liquid. (C) Evaporation takes place at all temperatures (D) The boiling point of a liquid is not affected by impunities. 

(19) Mass of Earth when it's radius is 6400 km and gravitational field strength is 9.81 N kg-1 is (a)6.0 × 1024 kg (b)5 × 1023 kg (c)40 × 109 kg(d)9 × 1024 kg

(20) The absolute zero of temperature is (A) -273oC   (B) 100oC   (C)  0oC   (D)  100oC  

(21) The volume of a given mass of gas is 273cm3 at 0oC. What is its volume at 273oC if its pressure remains constant? (A)  272cm3   (B) 273cm3   (C) 274cm3     (D) 546cm3

(22) N kg-1 is equivalent to (a)ms-2(b)ms-1  (c)m s (d)ms-3

(23) Which of the following equations is correct? (Where the symbols have their usual meanings.) (A)          (B)       (C)      (D)       

(24) Which of the following property is a consequence of superposition of waves? (A) Reflection    (B)  Refraction   (C)  Interference    (D)  Polarization  

(25) The image of any real object formed by a diverging mirror is not (A)  Inverted    (B)  Erect   (C)  Diminished     (D)  Virtual

(26)         What is the minimum velocity required for an object of mass “m” to escape the    gravitational pull of a planet o mass “M” and radius “R” from its surface? a) [(G*M)/R]1/2 b) [(2*G*M)/R] 2 c) [(G*M*m)/R]1/2 d) [(2*G*M)/R]1/2

(27) Array of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 30o. Calculate the angle which the reflected ray makes with the surface of the mirror. (A)  120o     (B) 60o     (C) 90o      (D) 180o.

(28) The escape velocity of an object from the surface of the planet does not depend on the   mass of the object. a) True b) False

(29) An object is placed 20cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 30cm.  Calculate the position and nature of image formed. (A)  60 real    (B) 8.6 real   (C) 8.6 virtual   (D) 30 virtual

(30) Which of the following instruments makes use of the principle of total internal reflection?

(A) Periscope     (B) Microscopes   (C) Sextants (D) Telescope

(31) Among the four, the highest wavelength is of (a) radio waves (b) infrared (c) ultraviolet (d) gamma rays

(32) An object 1.00cm high is placed 18.0cm from a converging mirror forms a real image 2.00cm high. Calculate the focal length of the mirror (A) 36.0cm    (B) 18.0cm   (C) 12.0cm   (D) 9.0cm

(33) The factor that helps to recognize a person by his voice is (a) intensity (b) pitch(c) loudness (d) quality

(34) Which of the following best describes the image formed by a convex mirror? (A) Virtual, erect and magnified (B) Real, inverted and deminished.C) Virtual erect and diminished    (D) Magnified inverted and virtual 

(35) Which of the following is the correct relationship between the relative refractive index n of glass and the critical angle x? (A)        (B)       (C)      (D)    

(36) Pitch depends upon the (a) amplitude (b) wavelength(c) frequency (d) speed

(37) Doppler effect is as a result of (A) Reflection (B) Refraction   (C) Relative motion (D) beat effect

(38) Calculate the frequency of fundamental of a closed pipe of length 20cm, if the speed of sound waves in air is 340 ms-1 (A)  40Hz   (B)  200Hz   (C)   350Hz    (d)425Hz

(39) Loudness of sound depends on (A) frequency   (B) intensity   (C) overtones   (D) Harmonics

(40) A man standing 99m from the foot of a tall cliff claps his hands and hears an echo 0.6s later. Calculate the velocity of sound in air in ms-1.(A)   59.4   (B)  82.5    (C)  330    (D)  430

SECTION B

Outline four applications of artificial satellite in the service of man. b) Briefly explain the terms electromotive force, terminal potential difference and internal resistance (c) Calculate the length of a Constantin wire of diameter 0.6mm and resistivity 1.1×10-6Ωm required to construct a standard resistor of resistance 35Ω. (d) Mention four factors that affect the resistance of a metallic conductor wire

A battery of three cells in series, each of E.m.f. 2V and internal resistance 0.5Ω is connected to a 2Ω resistor in series with a parallel combination of two 3Ω resistors. Draw the circuit diagram and calculate:

The effective external resistance   (b)The current in the circuit (c) The lost volts in the battery (d) he current in one of the 3Ω resistors

Define each of the three characteristics of musical note b) A sonometer wire has a fundamental frequency of 259Hz, if it is under a tension of 1200N, and a meter of it has a mass of 0.05Kg, calculate the length of the wire when it is vibrating in the fundamental mode c) Differentiate between resonance and forced vibration (d) differentiate between noise and music

State Pascals law of transmission of pressure in fluids b) A hydraulic press consists of two cylinders of cross-sectional area 0.2m2 and 5.0m2. The piston in the smaller cylinder is pushed down with a force of 1000N through a distance of 0.2m. calculate (i)The pressure transmitted by the fluid (ii) The force exerted by the piston in the large cylinder ( c ) Mention four applications of atmospheric pressure

Name five uses of electromagnetic radiations. ii) What do you understand by gravitational field?

b) State Newton’s law of universal gravitation. (II ) If g=9.8m/s2, G=6.7×10-11Nm2kg-2, calculate the mass of the earth if the radius of the earth is approximately taken as 6400km (c ) List the eight planets in their order of separation from the Sun









SS2 CHEMISTRY EXAMINATION 2nd TERM 2022/2023 (section A, Answer all)

14.8g of salt Z dissolved in 250cm3 of distilled water gives a concentration of   0.8mol/dm  3. Calculate the molar mass of the salt Z. (a) 74.0g/mol (b) 13.5g/mol (c)47.2g/mol (d)18.5g/mol

Element in group 7 are known as   (A) alkali metals  (B) halogens  (C) noble gases   (D) lanthanides

The following factors cause environmental pollution except   (A) bush burning   (B) industrialization (C) photosynthesis   (D) chemical warfare

The process in which water is treated with slaked lime and alum is known as      (A) chlorination      (B) coagulation  (C) filtration  (D) sedimentation

The bleaching action of chlorine in water is because of its -  (A) ability to accept hydrogen   (B)  oxidizing power (C ) reducing property  (D) strong acidic nature

Ammonium dioxonitrate(iii) (iv) NH4NO2 decomposes to form (A) NH4+ and NO2  (B) N2,H2 and O2     (C) N2 and NH3    (D) N2 and H2O

Which of the following is used as a coolant   (A) gaseous nitrogen    (B) Nitrogen (iv) oxide  (C) liquid nitrogen   (D) nitrogen (ii) oxide

All of these are used in photography except       (A) AgCl     (B) AgBr      (C) AgI   (D) AgNO3

Ethanol is prepared from glucose by the process  of (A) catalytic hydration   (B) fermentation   (C) hydrolysis (D) Respiration 

What is oxidation number of chlorine in KClO3 and Cl2? (A)0 and -1 (B)0 and +5 (C)+5 and 0 (D)+7 and 0

The following gasses are diatomic except (a)helium (b) nitrogen (c) hydrogen (d) fluorine

Rare gases are stable because they (A) are chemically active( B) contain equal number of neutrons and proton   (C) contain more proton than electron  (D) have complete electrons in their outermost shell

When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction, the reaction is said to (A) adiabatic    (B) endothermic    (C)  exothermic    (D) isothermic

The activation energy of a reaction can be altered by  (A) adding a reducing agent (B) applying a high pressure    (C) using a catalyst     (D) change in temperature

What is the mass number of an element if its atom contains 10 protons, 10 electrons and 12 neutrons?  (A) 32  (B)22  (C) 20 (D) 10

How many isotopes has hydrogen? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

A solution that contains as much solute as it can dissolve at a particular temperature is said to be (A) concentrated (B) saturated (C) supersaturated (D) unsaturated.

When water was added to a white anhydrous substance X, the colour changed to blue. X is (A)CuSO4 (B) FeSO4 (C) Na2SO4 (D)PbSO4

Consider the following reaction equation H3O+ (aq)   +   OH- (aq)                       2H2O (l). The reaction represent   (A) esterification (B) hydrolysis (C)neutralization  (D) redox

A solution that contains as much solute as it can dissolve at a particular temperature is said to be (A) concentrated (B) saturated (C) supersaturated (D) unsaturated.

On evaporation to dryness 350 cm3 of a saturated solution of a salt Z gave 55.5g of salt. What is the solubility of the salt? [molar mass of Z is 101g/mol] (A) 1.57mol/dm3 (B) 3.14mlodm3        (C) 6.28 moldm3 (D) 12.56 moldm3

The high solubility of ethanol in water is due to its  (A) low boiling point (B) low freezing point   (C) covalent nature (D) hydrogen bond 

A substance which dissolve readily in organic solvent would  (A) be a covalent compound           (B) have a strong forces of attraction (C) have a high melting point (D) conduct electricity

If 10cm3 of distilled water is added to 10cm3 of an aqueous salt solution, the concentration of the solution (A) increases (B) decreases (C) remains the same (D) doubles

Which of the following statements about chlorine and iodine at room temperature is correct? (A) cholrine is gas and iodine is solid (B) chlorine is liquid and iodine is gas (C) chlorine and iodine are gases (D) chlorine is solid and iodine is liquid

A sample of a gas may be identified as chlorine if it turns (A)damp blue litmus red (B) lime water milky (C) lead ethanoate paper black (D) starch iodide paper blue black.

Zinc oxide is said to be amphoteric because it (A) forms an acid (B) is an insoluble base (C) forms a double (D) reacts with a base or an acid

Which of the following statement is correct? The solubility of (A) gases increases with increase in temperature (B) gases decreases with increase in temperature (C) most solute solids decreases with increase in temperature (D) most solids solute is constant.

The component of air that can be removed by alkaline pyrogallol solution is (A) oxygen (B) nitrogen (C) water vapour (D) carbon (iv) oxide

Which of the following pair of gases are pollutants from car exhaust? (A) nitrogen (ii) oxide and carbon (iv) oxide (B) carbon (iv) oxide and nitrogen (D) carbon (ii) oxide and sulphur (iv) oxide

What is the concentration in mol/dm3 of a solution containg 0.1g of sodium hydroxide per 250cm3 of solution? (NaOH = 40g/mol) (A) 0.05 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.5 (D) 2

How many moles are there in 500cm3 of 0.01 mol/dm3 AgNO3 solution? (A) 0.005mole (B) 0.05mole (C) 0.5mole (D) 5mole

The energy change which accompanies the addition of an electron to an isolated gaseous atom is (A) atomization (B) electronegativity (C) electron affinity (D) ionization

Which of the following can conveniently be placed in two groups in the periodic table? (A) copper (B) carbon (C) hydrogen (D) oxygen

An element Q forms a compound QCl5. In which of the group of the periodic table is Q?    (A) II  (B)III  (C) IV  (D) V

To which group and period respectively does an element with 15 electrons belong? (A) 3 and 3 (B) 3 and 5 (C)5 and 3 (D) 5 and 5

Chlorine is used in water treatment as (A) germicide (B) a decolorizing (C) antioxidant (D)coagulating agent

The element with electron configuration 1S22S22P63S23P1 belongs to   (A) s – block, period 3, group 1 (B) p – block, period 3, group 2. (C) s – block, period 3, group 3 (D) p– block, period 3, group 3

In the periodic table al the element within the same group have the same (A) number of neutron (B) number of valence electron (C)number of isotopes (D) atomic number

Which of the following halogens is a solid at room temperature? (A) iodine  (B) chlorine (C) fluorine  (D) bromine

THEORY : SECTION B Answer only three question from this section.

1a. Define     (i) Saturated   solution (ii) Unsaturated solution (iii) super saturated solution  (iv)Solubility

1b. when 50cm3 of a saturated solution of KNO3 at 250C was evaporated to dryness. 10g of a dry salt was obtained.  What is the solubility of KNO3 at 250C.?  (Given K=39, N=14, O=16).

 1c. Give two application of solubility curve. 1d. Give one test for water

2a. Write down the steps involved in the purification water for municipal supply.  (ii) State the two types of hardness in water   (iii) Name a salt that causes each type of hardness.  (iv) Write a balanced equation for the removal of each type of hardness.

2b. State two chemical properties (equation is important) and two physical properties of Hydrogen.

2c. Describe the bleaching action of chlorine.

3 (a) Define the following (i) Global warming (ii) Greenhouse gases (iii) Greenhouse effect      (iv) Ozone layer. 

 (b) State two effect of global warming  (c) Describe one method of laboratory preparation of hydrogen

(d) Draw a well labelled diagram for the laboratory preparation of Oxygen.

4.(a) List four physical properties of the halogens (b) draw and label a diagram to illustrate the preparation and collection of dry chlorine in the laboratory (c) State the function of water and concentrated H2SO4 in the above preparation. (d) List four uses of hydrogen        (e) Arrange the halogens in the order of increasing (i) reactivity (ii) oxidizing power (iii) colour

5.(a) Describe the industrial preparation of nitrogen (b) Define the following oxides two examples each (i) Acidic oxide (ii) Basic oxide (c) State what will be observed when a damped starch iodide paper is dropped in a jar of chlorine. (d) Explain your answer in (c) above (e) List four physical properties of oxygen.








SS 2 BIOLOGY SECOND TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2022/2023 SESSION

SECTION A

Which of the following is not regarded as a micronutrient or trace element for plant growth 

(a) phosphorous (b) zinc (c) boron (d) silicon.

The relationship between an herbivore and the bacteria which live in its caecum is known as (a) parasitism (b) symbiosis (c) commensalism (d) predator 

Which of the following is not classified as a terrestrial habitat (a) forest(b) guinea savannah (c) afro alpine(d) littoral zone 

Which of the following are not causative organism of plant disease? (a)fungi (b) viruses (c) cercariee (d) bacteria 

A constituent of the exhaust gases of motor vehicles which causes serious air pollution is? (A)  water cycle (b) carbon dioxide (c) carbon monoxide (d) oxygen

Which of the following blood component has the greatest affinity for oxygen and carbon dioxide (a) blood plasma (b) leucocyte (c) thrombocyte (d) erythrocyte 

Which of the following organs is responsible for controlling the body temperature regulation and water balance in mammals? (a) kidney (b) hypothalamus (c) parathyroid (d) adrenal 

The translocation of food materials in plants take place in the (a) xylem (b) cambium (c) phloem (d) bone

Which of the following is not an effect of overcrowding on a population (a) death (b) competition (c) commensalism (d) aggression

The term used in describing the effective management of natural resource of man is (a) preservation (b) utilization (c) economic (d) conservation

Which of the following fixes atmospheric nitrogen? (a) rhizobium (b) Nitrosomona (c) nitrobacter (d) putrefying bacteria 

Differentiate tissues in plant contribute to the support of the plant as a result of the following characteristics except (a) malleability (b) rigidity (c) flexibility (d) hardness 

The cup-shaped part of the bowman’s capsule contains (a) nephridium (b) glomerulus (c) loop of Henle (d) nephron

Which of the following reagents is used for the test for starch? (a) millions reagents (b) Fehling solution (c) Sudan III (d) iodine solution 

Which of the following factors is an autotrophic mode of nutrition? (a) chemosynthesis(b) Saprophytism (c) parasitism (d) symbiosis 

Which of the following factors is not associated with aquatic habitat (a) osmosis (b) inhalation (c) diffusion (d) exhalation 

Which of the following types of soil has the highest water retaining capacity (a) clay (b) laterite (c) loam (d) gravel 

Which of the following process is not involved in the carbon cycle? (A) burning (b) decay (c) transpiration (d) respiration 

Water rises rapidly in (a) sandy soil (b) clay soil (c) sandy, loam soil (d) loamy soil

Which of the following is not part of the female reproductive system? (a) ovary (b) seminal vesicle (c) uterus (d) vaginal

The number of individual in a habitat in relation to the unit space available to each organism is referred to as the? (a) birth rate (b) density (c)mortality (d) frequency

Oxygenated blood from the lungs is carried to the left auricle of the heart through the (a) pulmonary vein (b) pulmonary artery (c) hepatic portal vein (d) renal portal vein 

Which of the following is not an example of a heterotrophic mode of nutrition? (a) symbiosis(b) parasitism (c) commensalism(d) holophytism 

 Which of the is used for the collection of small insects from the soil, leaf litter crevices (a) pooter (b) quadrant (c) sweep net (d) dragnet 

Which of the following are food grains best preserved? (a) silos (b) snacks (c) refrigerator’s (d) ovens 

Which of the following is a pollutant of air? (a) oxygen (b) water vapour (c) carbon monoxide (d) nitrogen 

The respiratory organ found in the cockroach is the (a) air sac (b) trachea (c) lung book (d) lungs 

Which of the following organs is associated with deamination of protein? (a) lung (b) stomach (c) kidney (d) liver 

Ultrafiltration 

Which of the following water pollutants may contain organisms that cause dysentery (a) pesticides (b) sewage (c) industrial waste (d) fertilizers 

The use of predators or parasites to control pest in the farm is known as? (a) predator control (b) chemical control (c) biological control (d) animal control

The scientist who discovered the cell while examining thin slice of cork under the microscope was? (a) Robert Hooke (b) anto van (c) Matthias schleden (d) Theodor schann  

The process by which plants manufacture food from carbon dioxide and water, using energy from the sun is termed? (a) chemosynthesis (b) photosynthesis (c) autotrophism (d) heterotrophism  

In which of the following is a cellulose cell wall present? (a) amoeba (b) mammalian white blood cell (c) spirogyra (d) paramecium 

Which of the following is not required for primary production to occur in plant? (a) chlorophyll (b) sugar (c) water (d) carbon dioxide 

Which of the following organisms is one celled and free living? (a) volvox (b) spirogyra (c) rhizopus (d) chlamydomonas 

which of the following is not a tissue found in plants? (a) epidermis (b) phloem (c) xylem (d) dermis 

hormones are transported around the mammalian body by? (a) water (b) nerves (c) blood (d) osmosis

Which of the following organism has a symbiotic relationship with green algae? (a) amoeba (b) paramecium (c) hydra (d) euglena 

The maintenance of a constant internal environment of an organism is known as? (a) homeostasis (b) homeothesis (c) turgidity (d) diuresis             

SECTION B: - (THEORY): INSTRUCTION: -Answer any 3 (three) from this section            

(a) Define conservation (b) explain four (4) methods of conservation 

(c) mention five (5) game reserves in Nigeria

(a)  Define pest (b) mention four (4) types of pest  (c) explain 3 classification of insect pest 

(d) explain four (4) ways of controlling pest

(a) Define reproductive system (b) state the function of the following organs 

     (I) sperm duct (II) Testes (III) Ovary (c) Explain the following terms

     (I) Perfect flower (II) Imperfect flower (III) Complete flower (IV) Incomplete flower

(d) Explain two (2) diseases of the kidney 

(a) Make a labelled diagram of the female reproductive organ of a flowering plant  

(b) state the function of any two (2) of the labelled part in (a)

(c) Compare reproduction in mammals and bird, amphibian

(a) list two (2) diseases each of plant and animals caused by bacteria  (b) state three (3) ways in which bacteria are useful  (c) State three (3) methods by which mosquitoes can be controlled.









CIVIC EDUCATION

INSTRUCTION: Answer all the questions in this section

SECTION A

The set of codes prepared by Government Agency meant to conduct or regulate the excesses of road users is called_____

____ are signs placed at the side of the roads to impart information to motorists and other road users

The reasons behind the usage of symbols in place of words under traffic regulation is ___

___is a person who is walking on the road especially in the area also being used by vehicles

“Animals are also classified as road users under the Nigerian traffic code” Is this statement correct or incorrect

“Zebra crossing is the same as pedestrian crossing “ Is this statement correct or incorrect

Your parents have a covenant position with God over your life. Therefore you must have their goodwill in life if not, it may not be well with you in life” True or False

Social pathologies such as unemployment, economic  hardship and frustration is one of the reasons why people indulge in drug is this statement correct or incorrect

___is any substance that when absorbed into the body of a living organism changes normal body formation

___is the habitual repetition of consuming drugs regardless of the known or unknown consequences

“coffee and gasoline are drugs” is this statement correct or incorrect

___are used as performance enhancing drugs particularly among sportsmen and sportswomen

___are substances that makes one to hallucinate or misjudge 

___are substances that have a stimulating effects on the nervous system of their users

NDLEA means___

NAFDAC means___

Reclusive behavior is ___

NDLEA was established by decree No___of January, 1990 under the military administration of General Ibrahim Babangida

NAFDAC was established by decree No___of 1993 under the regime of General Ibrahim Babangida

The current chairman of NDLEA is___

The current Director General of NAFDAC is___

The Director of the FCT Dept of Science and Technology and Innovation is___

The 2023 presidential election Is Nigeria was held on the___

The principal of the GSSS Pyakasa-Maitama is___

Who is your civic education teacher?

GSSS Pyakasa was established in the year___

The Honorable minister of FCT is___

Those people who have exceptional memory capacity for story telling are called___

___is the embodiment of traditions, customs and beliefs

When a culture is steadily pinning away by collapsing into a superior culture is known as__


SECTION B

INSTRUCTION: Answer all the questions

(a) Define public service

(b) Discuss two characteristics of public service known to you

(c) Mention two factors militating against the public service

(a) What is interpersonal relationship?

(b) Mention and discuss two factors that can promote inter personal relationship

(c) Discuss two factors that must be carefully considered before intending couple will settled down in marriage

(a) What do you understand by Responsible Parenthood?

(b) Mention and discuss two roles of responsible parenthood?

(c) Mention and discuss two consequences of irresponsible parenthood?

(a) What is inter communal relationship?

(b) Mention or state four of the NDLEA drug laws you have leant about?

(c) Mention or state four of the Traffic regulations for the pedetrians









ECONOMICS

A market situation with a large number of firms selling closely related but differentiated products(A)Duopoly(B)monopolistic competition(C)monopsony(D)monopoly

Which of these is a condition necessary for a perfect market(A)there is preferential treatment(B)there is a large number of buyers and sellers(C)few numbers of buyers and sellers(D)goods are heterogonous

When elasticity is zero, the demand curve is(A)concave(B)perfectly inelastic(C)perfectly elastic(D)downward slope

Which of the market determine its own price or output(A)perfect(B)commodity (C)monopoly(D)competitive

When the price of goods is above the equilibrium, there will be(A)inflation(B)unemployment(C)surplus (D)shortage

The type of monopoly that develop as a result of granting patent right is known as monopoly (A)state (B)legal (C)natural (D) Discriminating

If price fall below the equilibrium price(A)demand will be greater than supply(B)demand will equal supply(C)price will become intermediate(D)supply will be greater than demand

Market equilibrium exist when(A)price is fluctuating(B)no buyer goes home empty handed(C)demand and supply are equal(D)the market is large

Unemployment that arises because of the introduction of new machines and equipment in production is(A)frictional(B)residual(C)cyclical (D)structural

The type of monopoly that occurs as a result of uneven distribution of resources is called(A)international(B)state(C)natural(D)legal

The extra satisfaction which a consumer derives from consumption is called_utility(A)variable(B)total(C)average

(D)marginal

Unemployment caused by disability is(A)frictional(B)residual(C)cyclical (D)structural

The major reason for the location of cement factory is(A)type of people(B)nearness to market(C)cost of goods(D)name of the company

Revenue is the(A)price of goods multiply by quantity(B)quantity of goods less quantity supplied(C)quantity of goods plus purchase price(D)cost of goods multiply by quantity sold

Which of the following is regarded as a fixed cost(A)cost of fuel(B)cost of raw material(C)rent on land(D)cost of light

Which of the following economic system is in operation in Nigeria(A)socialist(B)capitalist(C)Marxist (D)mixed

What are inferior goods? These are goods(A)that are no longer in demand(B)that are generally in short supply(C)price elasticity of demand is constant(D)whose demand falls as income increases

Money market is a market for—term loan(A)long(B)short(C)medium(D)short and long

Subsistence agriculture means(A)farming for urban dwellers(B)cultivating for household consumption(C)cultivation for local industry(D)cultivation for external use

Which of the following is not  a type of industry(A)manufacturing(B)transport(C)mining(D)sugar

Which of the following is used to control monopoly(A)sales(B)cost(C)privatization(D)production

Perfectly inelastic demand is represented as E= (A)1(B)0(C)<1(D)>0

Perfectly elastic demand is represented as E= (A)1(B)0(C)infinity(D)>0

Which of the term is not a type of utility(A)form(B)time(C)date(D)place

Majority of west African labour force is engaged in(A)construction industry(B)agricultural production(C)industrial production(D)mining industry

The idea that all jobs are equal is known as(A)employment(B)job creation(C)dignity of labour(D)self-employment

The figure shows the old and new price of bread as 40, 50 and old and new quantity as 160, 80. Using the information above calculate for question 27---30.

Percentage change in quantity demand(A)25(B)30(C)40(D)50

Percentage change in price(A)25(B)30(C)40(D)50

Coefficient of price elasticity of demand(A)1(B)2(C)0.5(D)1.5

What type of elasticity is demand(A)perfectly (B)unitary(C)inelastic(D)elastic

Market is classified according to (A)price(B)taste(C)durability(D)size

Which of the following is not a reason for low agricultural productivity in Africa(A)Poor transportation system(B)lack of basic amenities(C)illiteracy of the farmer(D)adequate capital

Which of the following is a function of marketing boards(A)price stabilization(B)cost of goods(C)providing seedling(D)cultivation of crop

Which of the following is an agricultural policy in Nigeria(A)operation feed the nation(B)crop rotation(C) farming for urban dwellers (D)operation starve the nation

Which of the following is an advantage of localization of industries(A)Creation of competition(B)availability of labour(C)availability of raw material(D)scarcity of capital

Capital market is a market for__term loan(A)long(B)short(C)medium(D)short and long

An imperfect market in which there are two sellers of a single commodity is(A)monopoly(B)oligopoly(C)duopoly(D)monopsony

An imperfect market in which there is a single buyer of a product is(A)monopoly(B)oligopoly(C)duopoly(D)monopsony

An imperfect market in which there are few producers of the same commodities is(A)monopoly(B)oligopoly(C)duopoly(D)monopsony

A country has a working population of 4.8 million of which 3.6 million people are employed, what is the unemployment rate(A)20%(B)10%(C)25%(D)30%    

SECTION B: INSTRUCTIONS: Answer question 1 and any other two questions from this 

(b) define the following terms(i)elasticity demand(ii)inelasticity demand(iii)unitary elastic demand(iv)perfectly elastic demand(v)perfectly inelastic demand          30 MARKS

(a) (i) What is an industry (ii) define an industrial estate (iii) list 3 types of industries

(iv) Define location of industry(v)state 2 factors influencing location of industry(vi) what is localization of industry (vii)state one factor influencing localization of industry             10 MARKS

(a) (i)What is unemployment (ii)State two causes of unemployment and two effects of unemployment(iii)state two solutions of unemployment

(b) Define self-employment (ii) Dignity of labour(iii)voluntary unemployment        10 MARKS

(a) Define the following terms(i)utility(ii)marginal utility(iii)time utility(iv)place utility(v)total utility

(b) (vi)state the law of diminishing marginal utility(vii)what is equilibrium price and quantity(viii)state the formula for total, average and marginal utility          10 MARKS

(a) (i)Define marketing board(ii)state two problems of marketing boards(iii)state two problems of distribution of commodities in west Africa

(b) (i)state three agricultural policies in Nigeria(ii)state two solutions to problems of agriculture in Nigeria








Physical Education 

SECTION A: Instruction: Answer all questions from this section

Answer the questions in this section 

Which of the following ancient city held physical education in high esteem? (a) Britain (b) Ethiopia (c) Greece (d) Japan (e) Sweden 

The concept of a "whole man" in physical education include the following objectives EXCEPT (a) Creativity (b) Education (c) Fitness (d) Hygiene (e) Recreation 

The ancient physical education in Nigeria is mainly for (a) Competition (b) Festivities (c) Military (d) Recreation (e) Survival 

The ancient of Olympic game was abolished in 393 AD by (a) Adolf spices (b) Baran Pierrede Coubertin (c) Emperor (d) Per Henrik Theodosius (e) John Dewey 

Adolf spices 1.B. Basedow and Guts Nuths are all pioneers of physical education from (a) Africa (b) Arabia (c) Britain (d) Germany (e) Rome 

The activity that one voluntarily engage in that can refresh or relax the body and mind is described as ____ (a) Physical education (b) Physical fitness (el Recreation (d) Competition (e) Tournament 

Table tennis was introduced in Nigeria in the year (a) 1945 (6) 1951 (c) 1965 (d) 1968 (e) 1972 

Sports competition organized within the school is called ___ (a) Annual event (b) Extramural competition (c) Interval competition (el) Intramural competition (e) Regular event 

NICEGA is a body responsible for the organization of sports and games among Nigerian (a) 

Armed forces (b) College of education (c) Polytechnics (d) Secondary schools (e) Universities 

Which of the following bodies is responsible for organizing athletics competitions in Nigeria? (a) AFN (b) BFN (c) GAN (d) HFN (e) NFA 

The acronym of NSSF means (a) National School Soccer Federation (b) National School Sport Federation (c) National Secondary School Football (d) Nigeria School Sports Federation (e) Nigeria Social Sports 

These are the effects of recreation on the body EXCEPT (a) Good health (b) Wealth creation (c) Social satisfaction (d) Emotional satisfaction (e) Physical fitness 

The following are Intramural sports competition EXCEPT (a) Inter house (b) Inter class (c) Inter faculty (d) Inter departmental (e) National football league 

Which of the following is not an extramural activity? (a) Inter house athletics competition (b) National athletics open championship (c) National handball league (d) National challenge cup competition (e) Nigeria table tennis open championship. 

Which of the following is not an objective of physical fitness? (a) Developing the system of the body (b) Developing good health (c) Maintaining an optimal level of physiology efficiency (d) 

Having ability to move freely and with control (e) To tolerate and accommodate others in sports 

Which of the following is not associated with recreation? (a) Canoeing (b) Championship (c) Excursion (d) Football (e) Mountaineering 

A mesomorph has an advantage in the following sports and games EXCEPT (a) Basketball (b) Football (c) Handball (d) Shot put (e) Sprint races 

Which of these vitamins promotes blood clotting? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) K 

The knee and elbow are example of joint in human skeleton. (a) Ball and socket (b) Gliding (c) Hinge (d) Pivot (e) Saddle 

Human movement is always possible due to (a) Bone formation (b) Contraction of the heart (c) Ligament attachment (d) Muscle attachment (e) Muscular contraction 

The process of gaseous exchange in the cell is known as (a) Absorption (b) Anabolism (c) Assimilation (d) Dialysis (g) Diffusion 

The combination of joints that permit circular movement in the body are joints. (a) Elbow and shoulder (b) Hip and knee (c) Knee and wrist (d) Shoulder and hip (e) Wrist and elbow 

Which of the following body system bring about active movement? (a) Digestive and Excretory (b) Muscular and reproductive (c) Nervous and digestive (d) Skeletal and muscular (e) Urinary and muscular 

Which of the following is not a type of circulatory system? (a) Arteries (b) Capillaries (c) Gonads (d) Heart (e) Vein  

Which of these injuries can further lead to dislocation? (a) Cramp (b) Fracture (c) Shock (d) Sprain (e) Strain 

An injury that occurs when a sharp jagged and irregular object cuts deep into the skin is called (a) Compound fracture (b) Incise wound (c) Impacted fracture (d) Lacerated wound (e) Punctured wound 

Which of these conditions does not require artificial respiration? (a) Choking (b) Drowning (c) Electric shock (d) Fracture (e) Sprain 

Which of the following is not a first aid for fracture? (a) Apply warm compress to closed fracture (b) Cover the broken area (c) Immobilize the affected part (d) Keep victim warm (e) Stop bleeding 

Which of the following is an example of nacotic drugs? (a) Babiturates (b) Cocaine (c) Marijuana (d) Morphine (e) Valium 

Doping in sports has the following effects EXCEPT (a) Alertness and strength (b) Curing illness and alignment (c) Decrease in sensitivity to pain (d) Increasing ability to strenuous exercise (e) Improving ability to concentrate 

The following are phases in high jump EXCEPT (a) Approach (b) Flight (c) Landing (d) Run-up (e) Take-off 

When the ball goes out of play from the side line in soccer, the game is restarted by a (a) Goal kick (b) Corner kick (c) Free kick (d) Penalty kick (8) Throw-in. 

What is the maximum numbers of players in the game of tennis? (a) 2 (b) 3 (a/ 4 (d) 5 (e) 6 

Changes of service in table tennis come up after every____ points. (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 (e) 10 

Flicking is a basic skill in the game of (a) Basketball (b) Hockey (c) Soccer (d) Tennis (e) Volleyball 

Which of the following is not a basic skill in swimming? (a) Breast stroke (b) Paddle boat (c) front crawls (d) Butterfly (e) Back-crawl 

The width of a badminton court measures _ metres. (a) 5.95 (b) 6.05 (c) 6.08 (d) 6.10 (e) 6.20 

How many seconds is a player allowed to hold the ball in handball game? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6 

The dimension of a hockey field is _ metres. (a) 75 by 53 (b) 91.74 by 50 (c) 91.75 by 54.9 (d) 

91.40 by 55 (e) 220 by 65 

The following are requirement in handball EXCEPT (a) Ball (b) Net (c) Shin guard (d) Stop watch (e) Whistle SECTION B: Theory 

Answer three questions from this section. 

Question one (1) is compulsory 

1a. Draw a standard diagram of a basketball court  

1b. Indicate the following areas in the diagram (i) Sideline (ii) Restraining circle (iii) Centre line (iv) Free throw line (v) Three points arc  

2a. What is First Aid? 2b. State five objectives of First aid 2c. Mention three qualities of a good first aider 

3a. Explain sports injuries?  3b.  Mention five examples of sports injuries?  

3c. Differentiates between fracture and wounds with appropriates examples 

4a. Define nutrition?  4b. State 5 determination of energy requirements in the body  

4c. Briefly explain the following (i) drug (ii) hard drug (iii) drug abuse (iv) drug misuse (v) drug addiction 


No comments:

Post a Comment

SS 3 ONLINE HOME ASSIGNMENT FOR APRIL 2024