BASIC TECHNOLOGY (YEAR 8-9)
The weight of a sample of wood after drying was found to be 60kg. The percentage moisture content was 40%, what is the weight of the wood before drying?
(A) 84kg
(B) 64kg
(C) 74kg
………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) 84kg
A whitish milky substance obtained from rubber tree is called…….
(A) Milk
(B) Latex
(C) Resin
………………………………………………………………………… Ans. (B)Latex
The power transmission system of a motor vehicle includes the following except the …………
(A) Clutch
(B) Steering wheel
(C) Gear box
………………………………………………………………..Ans. (B) Steering Wheel
Which of these angles cannot be constructed using ruler and pair of compasses only?
(A) 7.50
(B) 150
(C) 1000
..........................................................................................................................…(C) 1000
The following system utilizes air to function except……..
Balloons
(B) Bellows
(C) Screw Jack
…………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Screw jack
Which of these is not a method of reducing friction?
(A) Use of Rollers
(B) Use of Ball Bearings
(C) Application of Heat
…………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Application of Heat
Aluminium is used in the construction of the body of aircraft because ……….
(A) It is light in Weight
(B) It is beautiful in Appearance
(C) It is a ferrous Metal
…………………………………………………………………..Ans. (A)It is light in Weight
Kerosene stove converts ………..to ………..energy
Chemical, heat
(B) Heat, Chemical
(C) Chemical, mechanical
……………………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) Chemical, heat
………..is applied in raising the oil wick of kerosene stove.
(A) Rack and Pinion
(B) Cranks and Piston
(C) Cranks and Connecting Rods
…………………………………………………………………………Ans.(A) Rack and Pinion
Which of these is not a desirable effect of friction?
(A) It aids walking
(B) It causes wears and tears in machines
(C) It aids blending of Substances
……………………………………………Ans. (B) It causes wears and tears in machines
Molecules of air can be set into motion by the following processes except
(A) Blowing air
(B) Using bellows
© Eating
……………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Eating
The streamline nature of the design of aircraft is to …..
(A) Reduce the effect friction
(B) increase the effect of friction
(C) make the aircraft accommodate more people
…………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) Reduce the effect of friction
An electrical tool used for cutting and twisting cables is
(A) Screwdriver
(B) Plier
(C) Hammer
……………………………………………………………Ans. (B) Plier
The process of splitting timber into smaller and marketable sizes is………
(A) Cutting
(B) Felling
(C) Conversion
………………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (C) Conversion
A device which melts in order to open a circuit when there is excessive current flow is called ………..
(A) Circuit breaker
(B) Fuse
(C) Outlet
………………………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (B) Fuse
Which of these is not an electrical conductor?
(A) Aluminium
(B) Brass
(C) Porcelain
…………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (C) Porcelain
The process of carrying out comprehensive repairs of a machine is known as ……… (A) Changeability
(B) Over glazing
(C) Overhauling
……………………………………………………………………Ans.(C) Overhauling
Which of these is not a pneumatic device?
(A) Air hammer
(B) Compression pump
(C) Soldering iron
…………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (C) Soldering iron
The major characteristic of ceramics is
(A) Heaviness
(B) Hardness
(C)Brittleness
…………………………………………………………………Ans(C) Brittleness
Which of these is NOT a product of Rubber?
(A) Car tubes
(B) Car tyre
(C) Radiator
…………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Shock absorbers
Rubber manufactured from petroleum is ______rubber.
(A) Elastic
(B) Latex
(C) Synthetic
…………………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Synthetic
The digging of ground to the required depth is
(A) Rigging
(B) Excavation
(C) Plastering
…………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (B) Excavation
The equation V = IR is called ……..
(A) Voltage Law
(B) Newton’s law
(C) Ohm’s law
……………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Ohm’s law
Which of these is needed to cut off power supply in a building when there is a fault? (A) Hammer
(B) Circuit breaker
(C) Plier
…………………………………………………………………….Ans. (B) Circuit breaker
The instrument used for measuring current, voltage and resistance is …………….
(A) Multimeter
(B) Volt meter
(C) Ammeter
……………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (A) Multimeter
The S.I. unit of force is ………..
(A) Meter
(B) Joule
(C) Newton
………………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Newton
Any feature in wood that reduces its market value is ………..
(A) Imperfection
(B) Fault
(C) Defect
…………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (C) Defect
Which of these is an underdeveloped technology?
(A) Horse drawn cart
(B) Use of aircraft for transport
(C) Motorcycles for transport
……………………………………………………………………...Ans. (A) Horse drawn cart
Which of these can be used to differentiate ferrous metals from non – ferrous metals?
(A) Meter
(B) Magnet
(C) Tester
………………………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (B) Magnet
Which of these is not a tool used by an electrician?
(A) Tester
(B) G-clamp
(C) Plier
………………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) G-clamp
Hammer is an example of ………….tool
(A) Driving
(B) Cutting
(C) Boring
………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Driving
The scale 1:5 is an example of ……….
(A) Full scale
(B) Reduced scale
(C) Enlarged scale
……………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Enlargement scale
An electric tester is used to detect the presence of …… in a wire
(A) Oil `
(B) Water
(C)Electric Current
………………………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) current
A plane figure bounded by three straight lines and three angles is called………
(A) Kite
(B) Parallelogram
(C) Triangle
………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Triangle
Which of the following can serve as improvised fire extinguisher in the workshop? (A) bucket filled with sand
(B) bucket filled with water
(C) Green leaves
…………………………………………………………..Ans. (A) Bucket filled with sand
A first aid box is identified by a red
Circle
(B)Cross
(C)Rectangle
……………………………………………………………………Ans. (B) Cross
The part of cell phone that displays readable information is the
Antenna
(B) Key pad
(C) Screen
………………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (C) Screen
When a fault is detected in a system, the next step is to….. the fault
Correct
(B)inspect
(C)locate
…………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C)Locate
The type of energy possessed by a car battery is…….
Chemical
(B) Heat
(C) Electrical
…………………………………………………………………Ans.(A) Chemical
The measure of oil resistance to flow is called…
Friction
(B) Oiliness
(C) Viscosity
…………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Viscosity
When two gears mesh, one is the driver while the other is termed the…
Chain
(B) Driven
(C) Idler
………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (B) Driven
An electronic device that stores up electrical charges in a circuit is called…
(A) Capacitor
(B) Diode
(C) Inductor
…………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) Capacitor
High voltages are reduced to domestic use by a/an……..transformer
(A)Step in
(B) Step up
(C)Step Down
………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Step down
The path in which current flows to and fro in a battery is
(A) Circuit
(B) Current
(C) Step Down
……………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) circuit
A generator is a device which converts
Electrical energy into heat energy
mechanical energy into electrical energy
electrical energy into mechanical energy
………………………………..Ans. (B) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
The instrument used by a surveyor in establishing the levelness of a building site is known as
Try square
Theodolite
(C)Spirit Level
……………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (B) Theodolite
The sum of all the angles in a triangle is …
80o
(B) 90o
(C) 180o
…………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) 180o
A plane figure bounded by four straight sides and whose four angles add up to 360o is known as …
Circle
(B) A Cone
(C) Quadrilateral
………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) quadrilateral
Which of the following is NOT a polygon?
(A)Hexagon
(B) Heptagon
(C) Circle
…………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Circle
The LINTEL is a building component placed …
(A)Above wall openings
(B) Below Foundation
(C)Below Wall Openings
…………………………………………………………………..Ans. (A) Above wall openings
The unseasoned timbre is sometimes called …
Brown
(B) Green
(C) Pink
………………………………………………………………………Ans. (B) green
When a metal is separated from its ore, it is said to have been …
Alloyed
(B) Cast
(C) Smelted
…………………………………………………………………….Ans. (C) Smelted
Significant property of rubber that differentiates it from plastics is….
Brittleness
(B) Conductivity
(C) Elasticity
……………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Elasticity
In a grinding machine, power is transmitted by frictional forces between the ….. and …..
Bearing, shaft
(B) Belt, Pulley
(C) Clutch, Final Drive
………………………………………………………………………Ans. (B) Belt, Pulley
Which of the following does not have kinetic energy
A block 4 metres above the ground
(B) A Car In Motion
(C) A Falling Stone
………………………………………………..Ans.(A) A block 4 metres above the ground
The process of removing moisture from wood is ….
Seasoning
(B) Preservation
(C) Conversion
………………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) Seasoning
Devices used for connecting and disconnecting two moving parts is….
(A)Brakes
(B)Clutches
(C)Connecting rod
…………………………………………………………………….Ans. (B) Clutches
Which of these devices is used for removing the kinetic energy in moving bodies
Clutch
(B) Brake
(C) Linkage
…………………………………………………………Ans. (B) Brake
D.P.C as applied to building is …
Damp Proof Course
(B) Dig Pick and Cast
(C) Develop Personal Concern
…………………………………………………………Ans. (A) Damp Proof Course
60 The largest Iron and steel industry in Nigeria is located at
Aladja
Abeokuta
Ajaokuta
……………………………………………….Ans (C) Ajaokuta OR Itape
SS1 BIOLOGY EXAMINATION QUESTIONS
SECTION A
All the organelles have membranes except (a) nucleus (b) vacuoles (c) cell membrane (d) cell wall
The unit contained in a cell structure responsible for changes in form and shape of organisms is called (a) mitochondria (b) ribosome (c) gene (d) lysosome
Which of the following statements is incorrect about diffusion? (a) It involves degeneration of soluble particles in solvents. (b) It occurs mainly in gaseous and liquid media. (c) No membrane is of needed to effect the movement of molecules. (d)Molecules move from region of lower concentration to region of higher concentration
Which of the following is not released during decay of living matter? (a) Ammonia (b) oxygen (c) carbondioxide (d) heat energy
Root hairs absorb water from the soil by (a) diffusion (b) osmosis (c) plasmolysis (d)translocation
The plant cell mostly stores food as (a) glycogen (b) auxin (c) hormones (d) starch
Which of the following organisms is a producer? (a) Spirogyra (b) mucor (c) rhizopus (d) yeast
Which of the following groups consists of heterophs? (a) Mucor,chlamydomonas and euglena. (b) Spirogyra,mucornad mushroom. (c) Man,mucor and mushroom. (d) Man maize and cowpea
All the available places on earth which support life constitute the (a) lithosphere (b)atmosphere (c) biosphere (d) hydrosphere
The mineral needed for the formation of haemoglobin is (a) magnesium (b) iron (c)phosphorus (d) calcium
Carbondioxide is expelled out of the lung b a process known as (a) osmosis (b)transpiration (c) diffusion (d) translocation
The statement that all living things are made up of cells was first made by (a) Robert hooke. (b) Mathias schleiden and theordore schwann. (c) Felix dujardin (d) von-mohi
Which of the following is the carrier of hereditary materials (a) chromosome (b)centrioles (c) nucleus (d) cytoplasm
The mode of nutrition which describes feeding habit in animals is (a) autotrophic (b)holozoic (c) saprophytic (d) photosynthetic
Which of the following organisms has both plant and animal like feature? (a) Euglena (b) paramecium (c) amoeba (d) spirogyra
Which of the following is a similarity between a typical animal cell and a typical plant cell? (a) Cellular cellwall (b) chlorophyll (c) cell membrane (d) large vacuole
In which of the following parts of a cell is the chromosome found? (a) Nucleus (b)golgi body (c) cytoplasm (d) cell wall
Which of the following organisms is both a living and non-living things (a) euglena (b) amoeba (c) man (d) virus
Which of the following organisms is one-celled and free-living? (a) Volvox (b)spirogyra (c) chlamydomonas (d) rhizopus
Most of the energy in the cell is produced in the (a) mitochondrian (b) plastid (c)lysosome (d) golgi apparatus
The study of animals is called (a) agronomy (b) horticulture (c) zoology (d) botany
All these organisms can exist independently except (a) fungus (b) a protozoa (c) a virus (d) an algae
Which of the following statement is common to plants only (a) green plant carryout photosynthesis. (b) Animals have fixed number of parts which are usually compact. (c) The posses special sense organs (d) growth is definite
Which of these defines as association in which the host is harmed? (a) Commensalism (b) mutualism (c) parasitism (d) Saprophytism
Carbondioxide is expelled out of the lung by a process known as (a) osmosis (b)transpiration (c) diffusion (d) translocation
Which of the following organisms possesses both plant and animal characteristics? (a)Amoeba (b) paramecius (c) euglena (d) mucor
Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by most plants?. (a) Ability to move away from stimuli (b) respire (c) reproduce (d) adapt to environment
An example of an organism that exists as a colony is (a) spirogyra (b) paramecium (c)euglena (d) volvox
Which of the following organisms is not a protozoan? (a) Amoeba (b) ascaris (c)plasmodi plasmodim (d) paramecium
Which of the following organelles is found only in plant cells (a) mitochondria (b)ribosomes (c) lysosomes (d) plastics
The structure in the cell that controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell is (a) cytoplasmic membrane (b) nuclear membrane (c) cytoplasm (d) protoplasm
The plant cell mostly stores food as (a) glycogen (b) auxins (c) hormones (d) starch
Autotrophs are also described as (a) consumers (b) decomposers (c) carnivores (d)producers
One important characteristic of green plants is that (a) possess specialized sense organs (b) are usually motile (c) are autotrophic (d) slowly respond to stimuli
During photosynthesis, light energy is always absorbed by the (a) shoot (b) water (c)chlorophl (d) enzymes
Which of the following substances is not complex carbonhydrate? (a) Glycogen (b)cellulose (c) starch (d) glucose
During which of the following processes is food for animals produce (a)photosynthesis (b) respiration (c) nutrition (d) digestion
Which of the following forms of energy is utilized during photosynthesis (a) potential (b) kinetic (c) solar (d) chemical
Raw material required by green plants to manufacture their food are mainly (a) fluids (b) in-organic substances (c) living materials (d) mainly gases
Which of the following organisms has a symbiotic relationship with green algae. (a)Amoeba (b) paramecium (c) hydra (d) euglena
SECTION B THEORY SECTION
INSTRUCTION: Answer any three (3) questions from this section. Number one is compulsory
1a. What is cell?
1b. State the four cell theory
1c. Mention three scientists who contributed to the development of the cell theory
1d. State one similarities between plant cell and animal cell
2. Define the following terms.
i. Diffusion
ii. Osmosis
iii. Photosynthesis
iv. Hypertonic
v. Saprophytic feeding
3a. In a tabular form, mention five(5) differences between plants and animals
3b. Mention five (5) characteristics of living things
4a. List five(5) functions of the cell organelles
4b. Mention five(5) differences between plant cells and animal cells
5a. Define feeding
5b. Mention types of feeding and their examples
5c. Explain any two (2) of the examples.
BIOLOGY SS2 QUESTIONS
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES
1. Which of the following is not present in the nucleus of a cell? (a) Chromosome (b) Nucleus (c) Mitochondrion (d) Genes.
2. In aerobic respiration, oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the ---- (a) cytoplasm (b) mitochondria (c) lysosome (d) vacuoles.
3. Which of the following blood components has the greatest affinity for oxygen and carbon dioxide? (a) Blood plasma (b) Leucocyte (c) Thrombocytes (d) Erythrocytes.
4. Which of the following factors is not associated with aquatic habitat? (a) Temperature (b) Light intensity (c) Humidity (d) Turbidity
5. The constituent of the exhaust gases of motor vehicles which causes serious air pollution is --- (a|) water vapour (b) carbon dioxide (c) carbon monoxide (d) oxygen.
6. Blood in mammals transport oxygen because it contains the pigment called --- (a) Haemoglobin (b) Chlorocruorin (c) Melanin (d) Haemocyanin.
7. The upward movement of the sap in the xylem vessel is brought about by --- (a) Transpiration stream (b) guttation (c) capillary (d) osmosis.
8. The translocation of food materials in plants takes place in the --- (a) xylem (b) cambium (c) phloem (d) parenchyma
9. An association between living organisms in which one lives on and feed at the expense of the other organism is known as --- (a) parasitism (b) commensalism (c) mutualism (d) diffusion.
10. Which of the following methods is used in food preservation for a long period? (a) Adding oil to food (b) Salting and drying the food (c) Water (d) warming.
11. Which of the following fixes atmospheric nitrogen? (a) Rhizobium (b) Nitrosamines (c) Nitrobacteria (d) Putrefying bacteria.
12. Which of the following reagents is used to test starch? (a) Millons reagent (b) Fehling solution (c) Sudan III (d) Iodine solution.
13. Which of the following is an autotrophic mode of nutrition? (a) Chemosynthesis (b) Saprophytism (c) Parasitism (d) Symbiosis.
14. Which of the following types of soil has the highest water retaining capacity? (a) Clay (b) Laterite (c) Loam (d) Gravel.
15. Which of the following processes is not involved in the carbon cycle? (a) Burning (b) Decay (c) Transpiration (d) Respiration.
16. Which of the following processes are involved in a water cycle? (a) Evaporation, condensation and precipitation (b) Evaporation, percolation and transpiration (c) Evaporation and precipitation (d) Evaporation and transpiration.
17. The mechanism of gaseous exchange in living organisms is essentially by --- (a) osmosis (b) inhalation (c) diffusion (d) exhalation.
18. The process of an aerobic respiration of yeast in sugar solution is known as --- (a) oxidation (b) fermentation (c) tissue respiration (d) alcohol production.
19. Which of the following tissue is not found in the stem and root of monocotyledons? (a) Xylem (b) Cambium (c) Pith (d) Cortex.
20. During which of the following processes is food for animals produced? (a) Photosynthesis (b) Respiration (c) Nutrition (d) Digestion.
21. The number of individuals in a habitat in relation to the unit space available to each organism is referred to as the --- (a) birth rate (b) density (c) mortality (d) frequency.
22. Oxigenated blood from the lungs is carried to the left auricle of the heart through the --- (a) pulmonary vein (b) pulmonary artery (c) hepatic portal vein (d) renal portal vein.
23. Which of the following is not an example of a heterotrophic mode of nutrition? (a) Symbiosis (b) Parasitism (c) Commensalism (d) Holophytism.
24. A hegrometer is used for measuring --- (a) relative humidity (b) specific gravity (c) light intensity (d) turbidity.
25. Which of the following is used for the collection of small insects from soil, leaf litter? (a) Pooter (b) Quadrat (c) Sweep net (d) Drag net.
26. The pathway through which nutrient elements are replenished and circulated in an ecosystem is called --- (a) cycle (b) food chain (c) food web (d) Kreb’s cycle.
27. The organ which is sensitive to light in Euglena is --- (a) gullet (b) chloroplast (c) eye spot (d) contractile vacuole.
28. Which of the following is a similarity between a typical animal cell and a typical plant cell? (a) Cellulose cell wall (b) Chlorophyll (c) Centrally-placed nucleus (d) Cell-membrane.
29. The first scientist to describe the cell was --- (a) Theodor Schwann (b) Felix Dujarclin (c) Robert Hooks (d) Charles Danwin.
30. Which of the following is the medium of transportation of nutrients within unicellular organism? (a) Blood (b) Serum (c) protoplasm (d) Plasma.
31. The respiratory organ found in the cockroach is the --- (a) air sac (b) trachea (c) lung book (d) lung.
32. Which of the following structures functions as an excretory system found in flat worm? (a) Contractile vacuole (b) Nephridium (c) Flame cell (d) Malpighian tubule.
33. The process where by micro-organisms can convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogenous compound is known as --- (a) Nitrogen cycle (b) Nitrogen fixation (c) Denitrification (d) Putrefaction.
34. Which of the following organisms exists as a filament? (a) Amoeba (b) Egulena (c) wax (d) Spirogyra.
35. In which of the following is cellulose cell wall present? (a) Amoeba (b) Paramesium (c) Spirogyra (d) Parasitic worm.
36. Which of the following is not required for primary production to occur in plants? (a) Chlorophyll (b) Sugar (c) Water (d) Solar energy.
37. Which of the following can cause desert encroachment? (a) Afforestation (b) Irrigation (c) Planting of trees (d) Overgrazing.
38. Which of the following perform the same function as the contractile vacuole of a unicellular organism? (a) Kidney (b) alimentary canal (c) Liver (d) Bladder.
39. Which of the following organisms is one celled and free-living? (a) Volvox (b) Spirogyra (c) Rhizopus (d) Chlamydom.
40. Carbon dioxide enters the stomata during photosynthesis through the process known as --- (a) osmosis (b) active transport (c) diffusion (d) inhalation.
SECTION B: THEORY.
Instruction: Answer any three questions from this section.
1. (a) Define digestive system.
(b) Explain saprophytic feeding.
(c) List two (2) enzymes in the stomach and their functions.
(d) Mention three (3) enzymes in the duodenum and their functions.
2. (a) Define dentition.
(b) Explain two (2) types of dentition with examples.
(c) Explain the following terms (i) Diffusion (ii) Osmosis (iii) Hypertonic (iv) Hypotonic.
(d) List three (3) materials of blood plasma.
3. (a) Explain the following terms. (i) Aerobic respiration (ii) Anaerobic respiration.
(b) mention excretory structure of the following organisms (i) Amoeba (ii) Flat worm (iii) Earth worm (iv) Insect (v)
Crustacean.
(c) Mention three (3) functions of the blood.
4 (a) List three (3) functions of the kidney.
(b) Make a labeled diagram of mammalian kidney (Nephron).
(c) Describe how the kidney carryout two of the functions listed in (a) above.
5. (a) Draw and explain the mammalian heart.
(b) Explain briefly pulmonary circulation in mammals.
(c) State five (5) processes by which the mammalian body reduces its temperature.
BIOLOGY SS 3 EXAMINATION QUESTIONS
1 Which of the following groups embraces the rest? A Class B Kingdom C Phylum D Species
2 The group Mollsca is characterized by the presence of- A jointed appendages B star-shaped bodies C backbones D soft, non-segmented bodies.
3 A virus can sometimes be regarded as a living organism because it A causes diseases in plants and animals B exists in a variety of shapes C reproduces in living cells D is easily visible with the aid of an electron microscope.
4 Which of these organs is considered vestigial in humans but still functional in other mammals? The A liver B appendix C rectum D stomach.
5 Which of the following pairs of organisms are photosynthetic? A Amoeba and Paramecium B Volvox and Rhizopus C Chlamydomonas and Euglena D Nostoc and Plasmodium.
6 Which of the following substances passes through the root cell membrane by osmosis? A Cell sap B Carbon dioxide C Oxygen D Water
7.The role of ATP include the following activities except A provision of energy to do work in the organism B transmission of nerve impulse C keeping the body warm in homoeothermic animals D producing water during aerobic respiration..
8 Only specially adapted mico-organisms are found in A salty water B humid air C moist soil D mouth cavities
9. Which of the following organisms causes syphilis? A Mycobacterium tuberculosis B Bordetella pertussis C Treponema palladium D Clostridium tetani.
10 A faster colour change of a dry cobalt chloride paper affixed to the lower surface of a leaf than the upper surface, indicates that A sunlight slows down water loss from the upper surface B the lower surface of the leaf has more stomata C sunlight causes the stomata on the upper surface to close D stomata are not present on the upper surface of a leaf..
11 Which of the following glands secretes a substance into the blood stream of a frightened person? A Adrenal gland B Salivary gland C Gastric glands D Parathyroid gland.
12Which of the following takes place when a person’s body temperature rises above 37oC? A Sweating and vasoconstriction B Panting and vasoconstriction C Sweating and vasodilation D Panting and vasodilation.
13 Which of the following is not a correct base pairing on the DNA strand? A Adenine, Thymine B Cytosine, Guanine C Guanine, Cytosine D Uracil, Thymine
14 Which of the following statements is not true of the light stage of photosynthesis? Chlorophyll is energized by sunlight B Water molecule is split into hydrogen and hydroxyl ions C Carbon iv oxide is reduced by hydrogen in atoms in NADPH2 D Water is formed
15 Which of the following juices contains the enzyme ptyalin? A Gastric juice B Pancreatic juice C Succus D Saliva
16 The density- dependent factors that operate to regulate a population size may include the following except -A shortage of food supply B fire outbreak C spread of diseases D increased competition.
17 Which of the following processes removes Carbon from the atmosphere? A Putrefaction B Photosynthesis C Volcanic eruption D Burning of fuels
18 A seed of a flowering plant can best be described as A radicle and plumule B the developed ovule C the embryo and endosperm D developed ovary.
19 Cytokinesis of mitosis is a process that ensures that A each daughter cell gets the necessary cell organelles B there is distribution of a complete set of genes into each daughter cell C daughter cells inherit new genetic combinations D warn out organelles are excluded from daughter cells.
20 The immediate product of meiosis in flowering plants is the A sporophyte B gametophyte C zygote D pollen grain.
21 DNA in eukaryotic cells is contained in the A central vacuole B nucleus C lysosome D Golgi body
22A man who is heterozygous for the disease haemophilia marries a woman who is double recessive for haemophilia, what percentage of their offsprings would have the disease? A 0% B 25% C 50% D 75%
23 A dairy farmer allowed only his milk producing cows to mate. In the succeeding generations of cows ,milk production increased. This outcome is an example of A artificial selection B natural selection C competition D cross fertilization.
24. An animal disease caused by a virus is ----. A Tobacco mosaic B Tuberculosis C Chicken pox D Gonorrhoea
25. An organism of the unicellular level of organization is A man B Paramecium C Hydra D Spirogyra.
26. Hydra is an example of ---- level of organization. A Cell B Tissue C System D Organ
27. Which of the following is not present in the nucleus of a cell? A Cytoplasm B Nucleus C Mitochondria D Genes.
28 Which of the following is not a constituent of a DNA? A Purine B Phosphate C Cytocine D Uracil
29 The bursting of mammalian red blood cell in hypotonic solution is known as --. A plasmolysis B haemolysis C turgidity D ex-osmosis
30. The mechanism of movement in an Amoeba is by – A pseudopodium B flagellum C cytoplasmic streaming D cilia.
31 Budding is a type of asexual reproduction found in – A Amoeba B Hydra C Paramecium D Euglena
32 The cell division which is responsible for sexual reproduction is – A meiosis B mitosis C binary fission D fragmentation.
33. An example of chemosynthetic autotroph is – A green plants B viruses C bacteria D fungi
34. An instrument used in investigating the phototropic and geotropic responses of the shoot and root respectively is the – A klinostat B hydrometer C photometer D hygrometer
35. The excretory organ of the crustacean is the – a nephridium B green gland C flame cell D contractile vacuole
36. The respiratory organ of a plant is /are – A stomata and lenticels B phloem and xylem C cambium D spiracle and tubules
37 Which of the following is NOT a biological significance of the mammalian skeleton? A Protection B Shape C Production of red blood cells D Production of bile
38A hydrostatic skeleton is found in – A man B insects C earthworm D birds
39 A vertebra with prominent neural spine is the – A thoracic vertebra B atlas C axis D lumbar
40 The head of femur articulates with the pelvis at the – A acetabulum B glenoid cavity C olecranon process D coracoid process.
41Which of these is Not a supporting tissue in plant? A Xylem B Cambium C Collenchyma cells D Sclerenchyma cells
42 Which of the following is not an excretory organ? A Heart B Lungs C Kidney D Skin
43 Ultra-filtration occurs in the – A Bowman’s capsule B glomerulus C Henle’s loop D Distal convoluted tubule.
44 The internal environment is made up of blood and – A lymph B cells C plasma D water
45 Over secretion of thyroxine leads to – A over activity B sluggishness C weakness D dwarfish
46The part of the tongue sensitive to sweet and salt tastes are – A tip B sides C back D optic cells.
47 Which of these eye defects is corrected with diverging lens? A Hypermetropia B Myopia C Astigmatism D Presbyopia.
48 A reducing sugar can be detected using – A Benedict’s solution B Iodine solution C Millon’s reagent D osmic acid.
49 The nerve centre of the mammalian tooth is the – A dentine B pulp cavity C enamel D cement
50 The ecology of many organisms is referred to as – A autecology B ecosystem C community synecology.
Section B- Theory : Answer any three questions from this section.1
What is variation? b List three examples each of continuous and discontinuous variations c Mention three uses of variation.
2The result of the fusion of male and female gametes has different names at different times . List the names using these stated periods of time A day 1- day 14 B 2 week-8 weeks C 8weeks -36 weeks. Ii Mention two diseases that are sex-linked.
3 What is the fate of the following floral parts after fertilization? i Ovary ii Ovule iii Definitive nucleus iv Integument. B Give one example each of I Capsule, ii Caryopsis iii Legume iv Drupe v Cypsela vi Sorosis
4 The phenotype of an individual is determined by many factors. List just five of them.
5The termites are regarded as social insects. Mention one striking thing about them, then list their castes with their functions
PHYSICS SS 1 QUESTIONS
INSTRUCTION: Answer all the questions in section A and any other three (3) questions in section B.
A car travels 3km due south and then 4km west. What is its displacement from the starting point? (A) N7kmE (B) S10kmE(C) S15kmE (D) S5kmW
Which of the following is not a fundamental S.I unit? (A) Meter (B) Ampere (C) Kelvin (D) Radian
The motion described by a simple pendulum clock is? (A) Random (B) Oscillatory (C) Rotational (D) Linear
Which the following is the dimension of velocity correct? (A) LT2 (B) LT3 (C) LT-1 (D) MLT-1
The resultant of two forces acting on an object is maximum if the angle between them is? (A) 1800 (B) 900 (C) 450 (D) 00
To determine the weight of an object you could (A) use a beam balance (B) use a spring balance (C) find the force necessary to give it a certain acceleration (D) use none of these method
A palm fruit dropped to the ground from the top of a tree 45cm tall. How long does it take to reach the ground? (g=10mls2) (A) 7.5s (B) 9s (C) 3s (D) 5s
The slope of a displacement time graph is equal to? (A) Acceleration (B) Uniform velocity (C) Uniform speed (D) Instantaneous speed
Calculate the distance between two position in space p(4,6) and Q (2,4) (A)2 (B) 3 unit (C) 5 units(D) 2.83 units
A man walks 1km due east and then 1km due west. His displacement is? (A) 1KM N150E (B) 1KM300E (C) (D) N60 E
Which of the following is incorrect? (A) distance is a scalar(B)displacement is a vector (C) speed is a vector(D) velocity is a vector
Which of the following is a set of vector(A) force, mass and moment(B) acceleration, velocity and moment(c) mass, weight and density (C) mass, volume and density
The force that opposes the relatively sliding motion of two surfaces is called (A) tension (B) thrust (C) friction (D) weight
A car travels at an average speed of 100kmh-1 what distance is covered in 5 minutes? (A) 1.78km (B) 20km (C) 8.3 km (D) 3.8km
Which of the following is NOT an industrial unit (A) kilometer (B)Horse power (C) Barrel (D) Ampere
A ball is released from a height above the ground. Find its velocity after 5 seconds. Take gas 10ms2 (A) 50ms-1 (B) 0.5ms-1 (C) 2ms-1 (D) 10ms-1
17. Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived? I. Area II. Thrust III. Pressure IV mass (A) I, II, III and IV (B) I, II, and III only (C) I, II and IV only (D) I and III only
18. A man will exert the greatest pressure on a bench when he (A) lies flat on his back (B) Lie flat on his belly (C) stands on both feet (D) Stands on the toes of one foot
19. A body moves with a constant speed but has acceleration. This is possible if it (A) moves in a straight line (B) moves in a circle (C) is oscillating (D) is in equilibrium
20. A body moving with uniform acceleration has two points (5, 15, and 20, 60) on the velocity _ time graph of its motion. Calculate a (A) 0.25ms-2 (B) 3.0m/s2 (c) 4.00 m/s2 (d) 9.00ms-2
21. An orange fruit drops to the ground from the top a tree 45m tall. How long It take to reach the ground? (g= 10m/s2) (a) 3.0s (b) 4.5s (c) 6.0s (d) 9.0s
22. The product PV where P is pressure and V is volume has the same unit as (a) Power (b) Work (c) Acceleration (d) Impulse
23. The unit of young modulus is (a) NM (b) N(c) NM-2(d) NM2
24. A body accelerates uniformly from rest at the rate of 3m/s2 for 8 seconds. Calculate the distance covered by the body during the acceleration. (a)12m (b)24m (c)48m (d) 96m
25. Which of the following has the same unit as the moment of a force? (a)Force (b) Power (c) Work (d) Momentum
26. Which of the following type of motion does a body undergo when acted upon by a couple?
(a)Vibrational (b) Translational (c) Rotational (d) Random
27. An object is said to undergo oscillatory motion when it moves. (a)In an erratic manner (b) to and fro about a fix point (c) in a circular part (d) a long a continuous part from the starting point
28. Uniform speed occurs when there is equal change of (a) Distance in equal times (b) Displacement in equal times (c) Velocity in equal times (d) Acceleration in equal times
29. Which of the following instrument is suitable for making the most accurate measurement of the internal diameter of a test tube? (a) A meter rule (b) A pair of calipers (c) A micrometer screw gauge (d) A tape rule.
30. A body moving at a constant speed accelerates when it is in? (a) Rectilinear motion (b) Translational motion (c) Circular motion (d) Vibrational motion
31. For which of the under listed quantity is the derived unit ML2T-2 correct
Moment of a force ii. Work iii. Acceleration
I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and II.
32 Two particles X and Y starting from rest cover the same distance. The acceleration of X is twice that of Y. The ration of the time taken by X to that taken by Y is. (A) 1/2 (B) 2 (C) (D)
33________ is that in which events are distinguishable with reference to before and after.
34 A bee flying from one flower to another is an example of motion _____________
35 A physical quantity with numerical value is called _____________while the symbols represented by [L], [M], [T], means _________________
36 To measure the diameter of a thin wire you should use ______________
37 The dimension of the physical quantity [ML2T-3] is for ________________
38 When using a stop watch to measure time, the experiment is usually repeated and the mean value of time is taken. This is to: (A) reduce the systematic error (B) reduce erratic error (C) reduce random error (D) check the accuracy of the watch.
39 The unit of potential difference is? (A) Ampere (B) volts (C) ohm (D) gramme.
40 An object of mass 0.5kg has kinetic energy of 25J. Calculate its velocity. (A)10 m/s (B) 25 m/s (C) 100m/s (D) 120m/s
SECTION B
1ai. Define Friction.
ii. Differentiate between static friction and dynamic friction.
b. A body of mass 10kg rest on a rough inclined plane whose angle of tilt is variable. Ɵ is gradually increased until the body start to slide down the plane at 60˚. The coefficient of the limiting friction between the body and the plane is:
2. Write the derivative of the following physical quantities,
(i). volume (ii). Velocity (iii). Area (iv). Density (v). Acceleration (vi). Force (vii). Pressure (viii). Momentum (ix). Work (x). Power.
3. Define (i). speed (ii). Velocity (iii). Acceleration.
b. A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly for 5 seconds until it obtain a velocity 30ms˙1. It then travels with uniform velocity for 15 seconds before decelerating uniformly to rest in 10 seconds.
i. Sketch the graph of the motion
ii. Using the graph, Calculate;
a. acceleration during the first 5 seconds . b. Deceleration during the last 10 seconds.
c. Total distance covered throughout the motion.
4a. Define time,
Aii. How many seconds are there in the month of June?
bi. Differentiate between fundamental quantities and derived quantities. Give two examples each.
bii. Calculate the distance between the two points A(3,4) B(-1,-1).
5a. in a tabular form, state five (5) differences mass and weight.
Bi. Explain what is meant by reading accuracy of an instrument. What is the accuracy reading of a vernier calipers? bii. Define relative motion and oscillatory motion.
SS2 PHYSICS QUESTION
1. --- is one of the precautions to be observed when determining specific heat capacity of a solid by mixture method
2. The numerical value of absolute zero temperature is ---------------
3. If temperature and mass of a gas is constant, the relationship between pressure and volume is
a.Direct b. Inverse
4. A decrease in pressure leads to a decrease in the boiling point of a liquid------------- true or false
5. Which of the following is not a thermometric substance (a) mercury (b) alcohol (c) water (d) gas
6. Convert 2.3 atm into mmHg. a. 2300 mmHg b. 1750 mmHg c. 2.3 mmHg d. 0.0030 mmHg
7. The volume of a gas is increased from 150.0 mL to 350.0 mL by heating it. If the original temperature of the gas was 25.0 ˚C, what will its final temperature be (in ˚C)? a. 146˚C b. 10.7˚C c. 58.3˚C d. 422˚C e. 695˚C
8. A gas exerts a pressure of one atm at standard temperature (273.0 K). What must the temperature be adjusted to for the gas to exert a pressure of 4.00 atm? (Give your answer in ˚C) a. −205˚C b. 68.3˚C c.819˚C
d. 1092˚C
9. A line connecting particles in phase in an advancing wave is called -------------
10. When you touch a cold piece of ice with your finger, energy flows
A) from the ice to your finger. B) from your finger to the ice. C) actually both ways
11. A substance that heats up relatively quickly has a
A) low specific heat capacity. B) high specific heat capacity.
12. Pour a unit mass of water at 400C into a unit mass of water at 200C and the final
Temperature of the two becomes A) more than 300C. B) less than 300C. C) at or about 300C
13. The vibrations of a transverse wave move; a. at right angles to the direction of wave travel. b. in the same direction as the wave travels. c. above and below the moving wave.
d. opposite to the direction of wave travel
14. Which of the following waves is not mechanical ______________ (a) Wave in pipe (b) water wave (c) radio wave (d) Sound wave
15. Compressions and rarefactions are characteristic of a. transverse waves.
b. longitudinal waves.
16. In a laboratory, Bunsen burner is used to increase the temperature of lime from 10 °C to 50 °C with the thermal energy of 80000 J. If the mass of the lime is 20 kg the specific heat capacity of the lime would be A. 25 J kg-1 °C-1 B. 50 J kg-1 °C-1 C. 75 J kg-1 °C-1 D. 100 J kg-1 °C-1
17. A pure substance would freeze or solidify at its A. boiling point B. condensation point
C. melting point D. sublimation point
18. The amount of energy required to change a given mass of liquid to gas and vice versa without any change in temperature is termed as A. Latent Heat of Fusion B. Latent Heat of Vaporization C. Heat Capacity D. Specific Heat Capacity
19. The wire of a platinum resistance thermometer has a resistance of 3.5Ω at 0°c and 10.5Ω at 100°(c) calculate the temperature of the wire when its resistance is 7.5Ω (a) 7.5Ω (b) 78°c (c) 57.14°c (d) 250C
20. The amount of thermal energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of substance by 1 K (1 °C) is termed as A. Heat capacity B. Specific Heat Capacity C. Latent Heat D. Specific Latent Heat
21. If the latent heat of fusion is 120 J and the mass of the object is 10 kg, the specific latent heat would be A. 8.3 Jkg1 B. 10 Jkg1 C. 12 Jkg1 D. 120 Jkg1
22. Water has the specific heat capacity of A. 3900 J kg-1 °C-1 B. 4000 J kg-1 °C-1 C. 4100 J kg-1 °C-1 D. 4200 J kg-1 °C-1
23. Interference is a property of a. light waves. b. sound waves. c. water waves.
d. all of these. e. none of these.
24. Polarization is a property of A. transverse waves. b. longitudinal waves. c. both. d. neither.
25. Which of the following property is a consequence of superposition of waves?
a. reflection b. refraction c. interference d. polarization
26. Which of the following is the speed of a wave traveling with a wavelength λ, frequency f, and period T
A. v = λ/f B. v =f/λ C. v = λ·f D. v = f·T E. v = f/T
27. Which of the following statements is true about longitudinal waves? A. They always have the same frequencies B. They always have the same velocities C. They always have the same wavelengths D. They always travel through a dense medium E. The particles vibrate along the same direction as the wave motion
28. Two wave pulses with equal positive amplitudes travel on a cord approaching each other. What is the result of the oscillations when the pulses reach the same point? A. It is constructive interference with twice the amplitude B. It is destructive interference with zero amplitude C. It is constructive interference with slightly greater amplitude D. It is constructive interference with the negative amplitude E. The standing wave is produced
29. Two particles that are at the same distance from the resting/equilibrium position and traveling in the same direction in a wave are said to be in --------------
30. Liquid nitrogen has a boiling point of -196ºC. This corresponds to
a. −469 K b. 77 K c. 153 K d. 469 K e. −196 K
31. the bouncing back of a wave after hitting a plane surface is-----------
32. Waves that can pass through vacuum as well as material medium are known as --------33. The temperature of water in a breaker is 40 °C. Its value in Fahrenheit scale is a.110 °F b.104 °F c. 130 °F d. 116 °F
34. Consider the wave equation y=10sin7(x-5ot). What does the number 10 in the equation represent? (a) Acceleration (b) Speed (c) Amplitude (d) Wave length
35.The inverse of the time required for a wave to complete one full cycle is called ______________ (a) Wave length (b) Period (c) Frequency (d) Period
36. Plane wave passing through a narrow gap emerge a circular wave. The phenomena is known as _______________ (a) Interference (b) Dispersion (c) Refraction (d) Diffraction
37. The temperature at which the atmosphere is completely saturated with water and below which dew begins to form is called a) mist point b) the fog point c) dew point d) air saturation point
38. Evaporation causes cooling…a) true b) false c) not sure
39. Surface area affects the rate of boiling….a)true b) false c)not sure
40. Mountain climbers requires pressure pots to cook at high altitudes ..a)true b)false c) not
THEORY
1. A PIECE OF COPPER BALL OF 20g AT 2000C IS PLACED IN A COPPER CALORIMETER OF MASS 60g CONTAINING 50g OF WATER AT 300C, IGNORING HEAT LOSSES, CALCULATE FINAL STEADY TEMPERATURE OF THE MIXTURE (SHC OF WATER = 4200J/KgK, SHC OF CALORIMETER = 400J/KgK) (b) Give three differences between evaporation and boiling c) State Boyle’s law
2) A plane progressive wave is represented by the equation. y = 0.5sin (100 πt─ 100πx/17 )
Where y is in meters, t in seconds and x in meters. Calculate the
Frequency of the wave ii Period of the wave iii Wave length of the wave
Iv Speed of the wave. V. Wave number (k)
2b. A radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 6 x 105Hz. If the speed of the wave in air is 3 x 108ms-1, calculate its wavelength.
C) Mention three factors that affect rate of evaporation
3) Define wave b) How would you produce a transverse and longitudinal wave using a slinky? Illustrate with diagrams showing the following: crest, trough, amplitude, wavelength, compression, rarefaction, direction of particle vibration, direction of energy c) give one example each for transverse and longitudinal waves respectively
4) 1200cm3of a gas is collected at 370C and 600mmHg, convert this volume to STP
b) Calculate the quantity of heat needed to change the temperature of 60g of ice at 0°c to water at 80°c. (Specific latent heat of fusion of ice 3.36x105Jkg-1. (s.h.c of water 4200Jkg-1k-1) c) what is fundamental interval?
5) Briefly explain with diagrams the terms: Diffraction, Refraction, wave front, Reflection and polarization.
SUBJECT: PHYSICS FOR SS 3
TIME: 2 HOURS
PART I
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
(A) State two applications of electrolysis (B) Explain the word Cations (3Marks)
List three observations in support of de-Broglies assumptions that moving particles behave like waves (3Mark)
Describe with the aid of a diagram, how a wave can be plane polarized. (3Marks)
Define (I) Elasticity (II) Young’s Modulus (III) Force constant
A force of 40N is applied at the length of a wire 4m long and it produces an extension of 0.24mm. If the diameter of the wire is 2.00mm, calculate the (i) stress on the wire (ii) strain in the wire (3Marks)
PART II
(A) Define specific heat capacity
(B) I. with the aid of a labelled diagram, described an experiment to determine the specific heat capacity of copper using a copper bell
II. State two precautions necessary to obtain accurate results
(C) A piece of copper block of mass 24g at 230oc is placed in a copper calorimeter of mass 60g containing 54g of water at 31oc. Assuming heat losses are negligible, calculate the final steady temperature of the mixture. Specific heat capacity of water= 4200 J kg-1 K-1 Specific heat capacity of copper= 400J kg-1 K-1
(D) Explain timbre and overtones (15 Marks)
Define
(I) Reactance (II) Impedance (2 Marks)
(I) Explain resonant frequency of an RLC circuit ( 2 Mark) (II) State the three types of emission spectra and name one source each which produces spectra, you mentioned above ( ½ Marks)
A source of e.m.f 2400 and frequency 50HZ is connected to a series arrangement of a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor when he current in the capacitor is 10A, the potential difference across the resistor is 140V and that across the inductor is 50V. Calculate the: (I) Potential difference across the capacitor (II) Capacitance of the capacitor (III) Inductance of the Inductor ( 6 Marks)
Draw and label one vector diagram for the potential differences across the inductor, the capacitor and the resistor ( 1 Marks)
(A) If the atomic mass radium of radium is 226.0254024 and that of radon-222 is 222.017574. Cal the energy released during an alpha decay radium to radon (atomic mass of He= 4.0026024 J) ( 3 Marks)
(B) State two: (I) Properties of x-rays (II) uses of x-rays other than those in medicine. (III) Hazards of x-rays (6 Marks)
(C) Differentiate between nuclear fusion and nuclear fission (3 Marks)
I. Explain chain reaction
II. State one condition for chain reaction to occur ( 1 Marks)
(D) State two components in a nuclear reactor used to control chain reaction. (2 Marks)
ENGLISH LANGUAGE SS 1
SECTION A: ESSAY: Answer only one question in this section and write not less than 350 words.
A friend of yours has been absent from the school for about a mouth due to illness. Write a letter to the describing some interesting things that happened in the school during the period and expressing your wish for a quick recovery.
Write an article for publication in a national newspaper, on the dangers of drug abuse among youths.
You are the first speaker in a debate on the topic: Female children are more beneficial than male children to their parents. Write out your speech against the motion.
Tell a story that ends with the advice: ‘’cut you coat according to your cloth’’.
Write a letter to the minister of education of your country on the poor state of schools in your area and its effects on the performance of students
Section B: Comprehension: Read the passage carefully and answer all the questions
We are today faced with a great ecological problem for which we are largely responsible The planet, earth, the only home of man is bathed in a steady rain of the sun rays. Most of these rays supply us heat and light, but small percentage is deadly. These are the ultraviolet – B rays (or UV B). If these were to get to the surface of the earth directly, they would kill us off. Luckily the earth surface is shielded from these rays by the ozone layer, but sadly enough this ozone layer is being destroyed by man.
The ozone layer formed from a kind of oxygen with three atoms (O3) instead of normal two (O2). Ozone occurs naturally in the stratosphere, several kilometers above the earth’s surface. It absorbs the dangerous UV B rays but allow the much needed safe light to pass through. There in the stratosphere, it is constantly being created by the sun’s ray, thus it is a self-repairing shield. But man is now gradually destroying this vital shield with his industrial gases. The most lethal of these gases are the chlorofluoro carbons or CFC which are used in making all kind of foamed plastic products propellant in spray cans, coolant in air conditioner and refrigerators and solvent to clean electronic equipment.
Down here, they are not lethal. But after they have leaked from air conditioners, plastic, foam, cups, etc., they slowly drift up to the stratosphere where, bombarded by ultraviolet rays, they break up at last, releasing chlorine, the real ozone killer. Sadly, one chlorine molecule may remain active for a century destroying thousands of ozone molecules.
Question:
What is the greatest ecological problem man faces todays?
What is the ozone layer made of?
Where it is normally found?
Describe the importance of the ozone layer.
How is man destroying the ozone layer?.
Give the name the gas specifically mentioned as very dangerous to the ozone layer.
What kind of figurative expression is: The planet earth the only home of man, is bathed in a steady rain of the sun’s rays?
……which are used in making all kind of foamed plastic products
What grammatical name is given to this expression?
What is the function in the sentence
(h) for each of the following words find another word or phrase that means the same and can replace it as used in the passage
(I) shielded (II) absorbs (III) Vital (IV) Lethal (V) Active
Section C: summary : Read the following question carefully and answer the summary question
The story of warfare reveal that man has come a long war in the beginning a man contented himself with simple hand hurled missiles. Man threw stones at other animals in warfare, as his enemies. Destruction are minimal, as this is determined by the size and roughness of the stone and the energy of the thrower. Even when man later invented the catapult, destruction was only slightly higher. The primitive catapult was made from tough rope at one end of which was tied a big stone. Its most limiting was that such a missile, no matter how strong the force behind it, could kill only one person at a time.
Things were relatively easy for the assailant with the invention of the bow and arrow. For the first time, man utilized very little strength to bring down his enemy, even at a distance position. The size of the bow the elasticity of the string, and the sharpness of the arrow, much more than the rude energy of the thrower, determined how fast arrow travelled. The weapon became even more significant when man later fix a sharp metal to the tip of the arrow. And when that metal was dyed in highly lethal poison, it became even more effective in killing man.
It’s the coming of metal, farm implement where developed. But man, soon turn some of these especially the machete, into weapon of combat. The sword is thus a close cousin of the machete. Used in combat, the sword especially when carried by a very skilled fighter on a horse could wreck more havoc than the bow and arrow. It is that the foremost conqueror of the classic period from Alexander the great to Julius Caesar,used this simple hand-borne instrument of combat. And this in its simple scabbard reigned for centuries.
Things took a dramatic turn with the invention of gun and bullet. The arrival of gun introduced the destruction of human lives at an unprecedented rate with the most elementary gun. In the handoff foot soldier, it became possible to count casualties in hundreds in a single encounter. With practically no physical effort, apart from the moving of a finger on the trigger, the highly lethal bullet is sent through the barrel at a speed much faster than that of sound. The enemy, the enemy, at a considerable distance, may thus be brought down without even the shooting or seeing the assailant.
The development of grenades, bombs, missiles, nuclear, and chemical warheads have made all previous weapons appear little more than toys. With bombs delivered by fast-flying airplanes, and nuclear and chemical warheads borne to their distant destinations by unmanned missiles, destruction of cities and infact, whole countries within a matter of is now a great possibility. Today man doesn’t need to be physically present to haul or throw the spare or send the arrow the missile has now replace all these. And it does not need to be physically sent by an individual. Electronic and computers do the lunching, and man dies in hundreds of thousands.
Question : in five(5) sentences, one for each, summarize the different type of warfare and their relative effectiveness.
Section D: Answer all the question in this section
I made a visit to the university teaching hospital the other day. At the 1………where accident 2……….are treated, the doctors were battling to save the life of a man who had just been knocked down in a road accident. They 3……….the injured man thoroughly with the aid of several 4……….instrument such as 5…………used in measuring body temperature and 6………used in listing to the sound of the heart and the lungs. By using 7………several internal part of the patient’s body were photographed 8……… and painkilling injection were given. His bleeding was stopped. The nurse 9……….his wounds and he was carried on a 10……….to the special care 11………. Where those under 12……..care are kept. The doctor asked the nurse to keep the patient under close observation.
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In each of the question 13-15 choose the opposite in meaning to the words or phrase underlined
13. The manager described him as an unindustrious worker(A) a courageous. (B) a diligent (C) a careful (D) an intelligent
14. The judge who passed the sentence was disinterested (A) partial (B) interested (C) wicked (D) fair
15. Adoka is a chatty fellow. (A) an unsociable (B) a selfish (C) a generous (D) a stupid.
In each of the question 16-20 choose the question nearest in meaning to the word or phrase underlined
16. He has been described as a laconic person. (A) tantrum (B) unsociable (c) loquacious (D) unassuming
17. The politician was accused of procrastinating in a very serious manner. (A) taking side (B) wasting time (C) prevaricating (D) rationalizing
18. Elelu was described as a very studious boy. (A) Bookish (B) industrious (c) stubborn (D) quit
19. The man said he was shocked at the preposterous accusation (A) debatable (B) damaging (C) absurd (D) wicked
20. Their revival in the competition was shorts lived as they lost yet another match (A) long lasting (B) unimpressive (C) decisive (D) transient
From the group of word or group of words lettered A-D choose the word or group of words that best complete each of the following sentence .
21.Ifoma: they shouldn’t be hoarding fuel Aisha:……. (A) yes,they shouldn’t (B) no, they shouldn’t (C) yes, they shouldn’t have (D) no, they shouldn’t have.
22. The principal arrived in company -------his wife (A)of (B)with (C)of (D)by
23. The vice principal as congratulated us -------our success at quiz competition. (A) upon (B ) for (C) in (D) to
24. Olu has been admitted ---------the university. (A) into (B)onto (C)in (D)to
25. He went to lagos -----------his own accord. (A)with (B)by (C) on (D)of
26. “-----------“he warned (A) don’t make noise(B) don’t make some noise (C) don’t make a noise (D) don’t make some noises
27. We searched ---------- for the lost bunch of keys (A) every nook and corner. (B)every nook and crannies (C) every and nook cranny (D) every nook and corners
28. The government is doing ---------- best to solve the unemployment issue. (A)its (B)their (C)her (D)it’s
29. Udoh is the only one of the council members who ---------- the plan. (A)oppose (B) have opposed (C) opposes (D)want to oppose
30. Is education a right a ----------- (A) privilege (B) privileged (C) priviledge (D) priveledge
In each of the questions 31/35 choose the option that best explains the meaning conveyed in the sentence.
31. I only saw Akin at the party (A) it was only Akin that I saw at the party (B) All I did at the party was to see Akin (C) I spoke to everyone at the party except Akin (D)I probably saw other people beside Akin
32. I spoke to Ifeoma and Abu and Bose retuned to the base (A) Bose retuned to the base, why I spoke to Ifeoma and Abu (B)it was only Ifeoma I spoke to, why Abu and Bose went to the base (C) After I had spoken to ifeoma and Abu,Bose retuned to the base (D)I spoke to ifeoma, Abu and Bose retuned to the base
33 the woman said that her son sowed the wind and reaped the whirl wind. (A)her son reaped the benefits of years of hard work (B) her son’s action boomeranged badly (C)her son got more reward for his hard work that he had expected (D)her son got fewer reward for his service than had expected.
34. She said she was in a bad odor with her husband’s family.(A) she was out favor with her in-law (B)her in-laws thought she had an unpleasant body odor (C) she did not like her in-laws (D) her in-law were suing for divorce.
35. Tsado is fond of dropping names.(A) he is very insulting (B) he says nasty things about people behind their back (C) he tries to impress people by mentioning famous people.(D) he praises people he already knows.
From the word letter A-D choose the word that has the correct stress
36. Continuation (A) continuation (B) continuation(C) CONtinuation(D) countinuAtion.
37. photographic(A)photographic (B) PHOtographic (C) photograPHIC (D) photoGRAphic.
38. Associate (A) AS-so-ci-ate (B) as-SO-ciate (C) as-so-CI-ate (D) as-so-ci-ATE
39. Expatiate (A) EX-pa-ti-ate (B) ex-PA-ti-ate. (C) ex-pa-TI-ate (D) ex-pa-ti-ATE
40. Scientific (A) SCI-en-tif-ic (B) sci-EN-tif-ic (C) sci-en-TIF-ic (D) sci-en-tif-ic.
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