SCIENCE SCHOOL MAITAMA

Monday, April 8, 2024

SS 3 ONLINE HOME ASSIGNMENT FOR APRIL 2024

Friday, December 15, 2023

Examination past Questions for your Revision December 2023

BASIC TECHNOLOGY (YEAR 8-9)

The weight of a sample of wood after drying was found to be 60kg. The percentage moisture content was 40%, what is the weight of the wood before drying?

(A) 84kg

(B) 64kg

………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) 84kg

A whitish milky substance obtained from rubber tree is called…….

(A) Milk

(B) Latex

………………………………………………………………………… Ans. (B)Latex

The power transmission system of a motor vehicle includes the following except the …………

(A) Clutch

(B) Steering wheel

………………………………………………………………..Ans. (B) Steering Wheel

Which of these angles cannot be constructed using ruler and pair of compasses only?

(A) 7.50

(B) 150

..........................................................................................................................…(C) 1000

The following system utilizes air to function except……..

Balloons

(B) Bellows

…………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Screw jack

Which of these is not a method of reducing friction?

(A) Use of Rollers

(B) Use of Ball Bearings

…………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Application of Heat

Aluminium is used in the construction of the body of aircraft because ……….

(A) It is light in Weight

(B) It is beautiful in Appearance

…………………………………………………………………..Ans. (A)It is light in Weight

Kerosene stove converts ………..to ………..energy

Chemical, heat

(B) Heat, Chemical

……………………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) Chemical, heat

………..is applied in raising the oil wick of kerosene stove.

(A) Rack and Pinion

(B) Cranks and Piston

…………………………………………………………………………Ans.(A) Rack and Pinion

Which of these is not a desirable effect of friction?

(A) It aids walking

(B) It causes wears and tears in machines

……………………………………………Ans. (B) It causes wears and tears in machines

Molecules of air can be set into motion by the following processes except

(A) Blowing air

(B) Using bellows

……………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Eating

The streamline nature of the design of aircraft is to …..

(A) Reduce the effect friction

(B) increase the effect of friction

…………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) Reduce the effect of friction

An electrical tool used for cutting and twisting cables is

(A) Screwdriver

(B) Plier

……………………………………………………………Ans. (B) Plier

The process of splitting timber into smaller and marketable sizes is………

(A) Cutting

(B) Felling

………………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (C) Conversion

A device which melts in order to open a circuit when there is excessive current flow is called ………..

(A) Circuit breaker

(B) Fuse

………………………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (B) Fuse

Which of these is not an electrical conductor?

(A) Aluminium

(B) Brass

…………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (C) Porcelain

The process of carrying out comprehensive repairs of a machine is known as ……… (A) Changeability

(B) Over glazing

……………………………………………………………………Ans.(C) Overhauling

Which of these is not a pneumatic device?

(A) Air hammer

(B) Compression pump

…………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (C) Soldering iron

The major characteristic of ceramics is

(A) Heaviness

(B) Hardness

(C)Brittleness

…………………………………………………………………Ans(C) Brittleness

Which of these is NOT a product of Rubber?

(A) Car tubes

(B) Car tyre

…………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Shock absorbers

Rubber manufactured from petroleum is ______rubber.

(A) Elastic

(B) Latex

…………………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Synthetic

The digging of ground to the required depth is

(A) Rigging

(B) Excavation

…………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (B) Excavation

The equation V = IR is called ……..

(A) Voltage Law

(B) Newton’s law

……………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Ohm’s law

Which of these is needed to cut off power supply in a building when there is a fault? (A) Hammer

(B) Circuit breaker

…………………………………………………………………….Ans. (B) Circuit breaker

The instrument used for measuring current, voltage and resistance is …………….

(A) Multimeter

(B) Volt meter

……………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (A) Multimeter

The S.I. unit of force is ………..

(A) Meter

(B) Joule

………………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Newton

Any feature in wood that reduces its market value is ………..

(A) Imperfection

(B) Fault

…………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (C) Defect

Which of these is an underdeveloped technology?

(A) Horse drawn cart

(B) Use of aircraft for transport

……………………………………………………………………...Ans. (A) Horse drawn cart

Which of these can be used to differentiate ferrous metals from non – ferrous metals?

(A) Meter

(B) Magnet

………………………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (B) Magnet

Which of these is not a tool used by an electrician?

(A) Tester

(B) G-clamp

………………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) G-clamp

Hammer is an example of ………….tool

(A) Driving

(B) Cutting

………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Driving

The scale 1:5 is an example of ……….

(A) Full scale

(B) Reduced scale

……………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Enlargement scale

An electric tester is used to detect the presence of …… in a wire

(A) Oil `

(B) Water

(C)Electric Current

………………………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) current

A plane figure bounded by three straight lines and three angles is called………

(A) Kite

(B) Parallelogram

………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Triangle

Which of the following can serve as improvised fire extinguisher in the workshop? (A) bucket filled with sand

(B) bucket filled with water

…………………………………………………………..Ans. (A) Bucket filled with sand

A first aid box is identified by a red

Circle

(B)Cross

(C)Rectangle

……………………………………………………………………Ans. (B) Cross

The part of cell phone that displays readable information is the

Antenna

(B) Key pad

………………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (C) Screen

When a fault is detected in a system, the next step is to….. the fault

Correct

(B)inspect

(C)locate

…………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C)Locate

The type of energy possessed by a car battery is…….

Chemical

(B) Heat

…………………………………………………………………Ans.(A) Chemical

The measure of oil resistance to flow is called…

Friction

(B) Oiliness

…………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Viscosity

When two gears mesh, one is the driver while the other is termed the…

Chain

(B) Driven

………………………………………………………………………….Ans. (B) Driven

An electronic device that stores up electrical charges in a circuit is called…

(A) Capacitor

(B) Diode

…………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) Capacitor

High voltages are reduced to domestic use by a/an……..transformer

(A)Step in

(B) Step up

(C)Step Down

………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Step down

The path in which current flows to and fro in a battery is

(A) Circuit

(B) Current

……………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) circuit

A generator is a device which converts

Electrical energy into heat energy

mechanical energy into electrical energy

electrical energy into mechanical energy

………………………………..Ans. (B) Mechanical energy into electrical energy

The instrument used by a surveyor in establishing the levelness of a building site is known as

Try square

Theodolite

(C)Spirit Level

……………………………………………………………………………..Ans. (B) Theodolite

The sum of all the angles in a triangle is …

80o

(B) 90o

…………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) 180o

A plane figure bounded by four straight sides and whose four angles add up to 360o is known as …

Circle

(B) A Cone

………………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) quadrilateral

Which of the following is NOT a polygon?

(A)Hexagon

(B) Heptagon

…………………………………………………………………..Ans. (C) Circle

The LINTEL is a building component placed …

(A)Above wall openings

(B) Below Foundation

(C)Below Wall Openings

…………………………………………………………………..Ans. (A) Above wall openings

The unseasoned timbre is sometimes called …

Brown

(B) Green

………………………………………………………………………Ans. (B) green

When a metal is separated from its ore, it is said to have been …

Alloyed

(B) Cast

…………………………………………………………………….Ans. (C) Smelted

Significant property of rubber that differentiates it from plastics is….

Brittleness

(B) Conductivity

……………………………………………………………………………Ans. (C) Elasticity

In a grinding machine, power is transmitted by frictional forces between the ….. and …..

Bearing, shaft

(B) Belt, Pulley

………………………………………………………………………Ans. (B) Belt, Pulley

Which of the following does not have kinetic energy

A block 4 metres above the ground

(B) A Car In Motion

………………………………………………..Ans.(A) A block 4 metres above the ground

The process of removing moisture from wood is ….

Seasoning

(B) Preservation

………………………………………………………………………Ans. (A) Seasoning

Devices used for connecting and disconnecting two moving parts is….

(A)Brakes

(B)Clutches

(C)Connecting rod

…………………………………………………………………….Ans. (B) Clutches

Which of these devices is used for removing the kinetic energy in moving bodies

Clutch

(B) Brake

…………………………………………………………Ans. (B) Brake

D.P.C as applied to building is …

Damp Proof Course

(B) Dig Pick and Cast

…………………………………………………………Ans. (A) Damp Proof Course

60 The largest Iron and steel industry in Nigeria is located at

Aladja

Abeokuta

Ajaokuta

……………………………………………….Ans (C) Ajaokuta OR Itape

SS1 BIOLOGY EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

SECTION A

All the organelles have membranes except (a) nucleus (b) vacuoles (c) cell membrane (d) cell wall

The unit contained in a cell structure responsible for changes in form and shape of organisms is called (a) mitochondria (b) ribosome (c) gene (d) lysosome

Which of the following statements is incorrect about diffusion? (a) It involves degeneration of soluble particles in solvents. (b) It occurs mainly in gaseous and liquid media. (c) No membrane is of needed to effect the movement of molecules. (d)Molecules move from region of lower concentration to region of higher concentration

Which of the following is not released during decay of living matter? (a) Ammonia (b) oxygen (c) carbondioxide (d) heat energy

Root hairs absorb water from the soil by (a) diffusion (b) osmosis (c) plasmolysis (d)translocation

The plant cell mostly stores food as (a) glycogen (b) auxin (c) hormones (d) starch

Which of the following organisms is a producer? (a) Spirogyra (b) mucor (c) rhizopus (d) yeast

Which of the following groups consists of heterophs? (a) Mucor,chlamydomonas and euglena. (b) Spirogyra,mucornad mushroom. (c) Man,mucor and mushroom. (d) Man maize and cowpea

All the available places on earth which support life constitute the (a) lithosphere (b)atmosphere (c) biosphere (d) hydrosphere

The mineral needed for the formation of haemoglobin is (a) magnesium (b) iron (c)phosphorus (d) calcium

Carbondioxide is expelled out of the lung b a process known as (a) osmosis (b)transpiration (c) diffusion (d) translocation

The statement that all living things are made up of cells was first made by (a) Robert hooke. (b) Mathias schleiden and theordore schwann. (c) Felix dujardin (d) von-mohi

Which of the following is the carrier of hereditary materials (a) chromosome (b)centrioles (c) nucleus (d) cytoplasm

The mode of nutrition which describes feeding habit in animals is (a) autotrophic (b)holozoic (c) saprophytic (d) photosynthetic

Which of the following organisms has both plant and animal like feature? (a) Euglena (b) paramecium (c) amoeba (d) spirogyra

Which of the following is a similarity between a typical animal cell and a typical plant cell? (a) Cellular cellwall (b) chlorophyll (c) cell membrane (d) large vacuole

In which of the following parts of a cell is the chromosome found? (a) Nucleus (b)golgi body (c) cytoplasm (d) cell wall

Which of the following organisms is both a living and non-living things (a) euglena (b) amoeba (c) man (d) virus

Which of the following organisms is one-celled and free-living? (a) Volvox (b)spirogyra (c) chlamydomonas (d) rhizopus

Most of the energy in the cell is produced in the (a) mitochondrian (b) plastid (c)lysosome (d) golgi apparatus

The study of animals is called (a) agronomy (b) horticulture (c) zoology (d) botany

All these organisms can exist independently except (a) fungus (b) a protozoa (c) a virus (d) an algae

Which of the following statement is common to plants only (a) green plant carryout photosynthesis. (b) Animals have fixed number of parts which are usually compact. (c) The posses special sense organs (d) growth is definite

Which of these defines as association in which the host is harmed? (a) Commensalism (b) mutualism (c) parasitism (d) Saprophytism

Carbondioxide is expelled out of the lung by a process known as (a) osmosis (b)transpiration (c) diffusion (d) translocation

Which of the following organisms possesses both plant and animal characteristics? (a)Amoeba (b) paramecius (c) euglena (d) mucor

Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by most plants?. (a) Ability to move away from stimuli (b) respire (c) reproduce (d) adapt to environment

An example of an organism that exists as a colony is (a) spirogyra (b) paramecium (c)euglena (d) volvox

Which of the following organisms is not a protozoan? (a) Amoeba (b) ascaris (c)plasmodi plasmodim (d) paramecium

Which of the following organelles is found only in plant cells (a) mitochondria (b)ribosomes (c) lysosomes (d) plastics

The structure in the cell that controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell is (a) cytoplasmic membrane (b) nuclear membrane (c) cytoplasm (d) protoplasm

The plant cell mostly stores food as (a) glycogen (b) auxins (c) hormones (d) starch

Autotrophs are also described as (a) consumers (b) decomposers (c) carnivores (d)producers

One important characteristic of green plants is that (a) possess specialized sense organs (b) are usually motile (c) are autotrophic (d) slowly respond to stimuli

During photosynthesis, light energy is always absorbed by the (a) shoot (b) water (c)chlorophl (d) enzymes

Which of the following substances is not complex carbonhydrate? (a) Glycogen (b)cellulose (c) starch (d) glucose

During which of the following processes is food for animals produce (a)photosynthesis (b) respiration (c) nutrition (d) digestion

Which of the following forms of energy is utilized during photosynthesis (a) potential (b) kinetic (c) solar (d) chemical

Raw material required by green plants to manufacture their food are mainly (a) fluids (b) in-organic substances (c) living materials (d) mainly gases

Which of the following organisms has a symbiotic relationship with green algae. (a)Amoeba (b) paramecium (c) hydra (d) euglena

SECTION B THEORY SECTION

INSTRUCTION: Answer any three (3) questions from this section. Number one is compulsory

1a. What is cell?

1b. State the four cell theory

1c. Mention three scientists who contributed to the development of the cell theory

1d. State one similarities between plant cell and animal cell

2. Define the following terms.

i. Diffusion

ii. Osmosis

iii. Photosynthesis

iv. Hypertonic

v. Saprophytic feeding

3a. In a tabular form, mention five(5) differences between plants and animals

3b. Mention five (5) characteristics of living things

4a. List five(5) functions of the cell organelles

4b. Mention five(5) differences between plant cells and animal cells

5a. Define feeding

5b. Mention types of feeding and their examples

5c. Explain any two (2) of the examples.

BIOLOGY SS2 QUESTIONS

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. Which of the following is not present in the nucleus of a cell? (a) Chromosome (b) Nucleus (c) Mitochondrion (d) Genes.

2. In aerobic respiration, oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the ---- (a) cytoplasm (b) mitochondria (c) lysosome (d) vacuoles.

3. Which of the following blood components has the greatest affinity for oxygen and carbon dioxide? (a) Blood plasma (b) Leucocyte (c) Thrombocytes (d) Erythrocytes.

4. Which of the following factors is not associated with aquatic habitat? (a) Temperature (b) Light intensity (c) Humidity (d) Turbidity

5. The constituent of the exhaust gases of motor vehicles which causes serious air pollution is --- (a|) water vapour (b) carbon dioxide (c) carbon monoxide (d) oxygen.

6. Blood in mammals transport oxygen because it contains the pigment called --- (a) Haemoglobin (b) Chlorocruorin (c) Melanin (d) Haemocyanin.

7. The upward movement of the sap in the xylem vessel is brought about by --- (a) Transpiration stream (b) guttation (c) capillary (d) osmosis.

8. The translocation of food materials in plants takes place in the --- (a) xylem (b) cambium (c) phloem (d) parenchyma

9. An association between living organisms in which one lives on and feed at the expense of the other organism is known as --- (a) parasitism (b) commensalism (c) mutualism (d) diffusion.

10. Which of the following methods is used in food preservation for a long period? (a) Adding oil to food (b) Salting and drying the food (c) Water (d) warming.

11. Which of the following fixes atmospheric nitrogen? (a) Rhizobium (b) Nitrosamines (c) Nitrobacteria (d) Putrefying bacteria.

12. Which of the following reagents is used to test starch? (a) Millons reagent (b) Fehling solution (c) Sudan III (d) Iodine solution.

13. Which of the following is an autotrophic mode of nutrition? (a) Chemosynthesis (b) Saprophytism (c) Parasitism (d) Symbiosis.

14. Which of the following types of soil has the highest water retaining capacity? (a) Clay (b) Laterite (c) Loam (d) Gravel.

15. Which of the following processes is not involved in the carbon cycle? (a) Burning (b) Decay (c) Transpiration (d) Respiration.

16. Which of the following processes are involved in a water cycle? (a) Evaporation, condensation and precipitation (b) Evaporation, percolation and transpiration (c) Evaporation and precipitation (d) Evaporation and transpiration.

17. The mechanism of gaseous exchange in living organisms is essentially by --- (a) osmosis (b) inhalation (c) diffusion (d) exhalation.

18. The process of an aerobic respiration of yeast in sugar solution is known as --- (a) oxidation (b) fermentation (c) tissue respiration (d) alcohol production.

19. Which of the following tissue is not found in the stem and root of monocotyledons? (a) Xylem (b) Cambium (c) Pith (d) Cortex.

20. During which of the following processes is food for animals produced? (a) Photosynthesis (b) Respiration (c) Nutrition (d) Digestion.

21. The number of individuals in a habitat in relation to the unit space available to each organism is referred to as the --- (a) birth rate (b) density (c) mortality (d) frequency.

22. Oxigenated blood from the lungs is carried to the left auricle of the heart through the --- (a) pulmonary vein (b) pulmonary artery (c) hepatic portal vein (d) renal portal vein.

23. Which of the following is not an example of a heterotrophic mode of nutrition? (a) Symbiosis (b) Parasitism (c) Commensalism (d) Holophytism.

24. A hegrometer is used for measuring --- (a) relative humidity (b) specific gravity (c) light intensity (d) turbidity.

25. Which of the following is used for the collection of small insects from soil, leaf litter? (a) Pooter (b) Quadrat (c) Sweep net (d) Drag net.

26. The pathway through which nutrient elements are replenished and circulated in an ecosystem is called --- (a) cycle (b) food chain (c) food web (d) Kreb’s cycle.

27. The organ which is sensitive to light in Euglena is --- (a) gullet (b) chloroplast (c) eye spot (d) contractile vacuole.

28. Which of the following is a similarity between a typical animal cell and a typical plant cell? (a) Cellulose cell wall (b) Chlorophyll (c) Centrally-placed nucleus (d) Cell-membrane.

29. The first scientist to describe the cell was --- (a) Theodor Schwann (b) Felix Dujarclin (c) Robert Hooks (d) Charles Danwin.

30. Which of the following is the medium of transportation of nutrients within unicellular organism? (a) Blood (b) Serum (c) protoplasm (d) Plasma.

31. The respiratory organ found in the cockroach is the --- (a) air sac (b) trachea (c) lung book (d) lung.

32. Which of the following structures functions as an excretory system found in flat worm? (a) Contractile vacuole (b) Nephridium (c) Flame cell (d) Malpighian tubule.

33. The process where by micro-organisms can convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogenous compound is known as --- (a) Nitrogen cycle (b) Nitrogen fixation (c) Denitrification (d) Putrefaction.

34. Which of the following organisms exists as a filament? (a) Amoeba (b) Egulena (c) wax (d) Spirogyra.

35. In which of the following is cellulose cell wall present? (a) Amoeba (b) Paramesium (c) Spirogyra (d) Parasitic worm.

36. Which of the following is not required for primary production to occur in plants? (a) Chlorophyll (b) Sugar (c) Water (d) Solar energy.

37. Which of the following can cause desert encroachment? (a) Afforestation (b) Irrigation (c) Planting of trees (d) Overgrazing.

38. Which of the following perform the same function as the contractile vacuole of a unicellular organism? (a) Kidney (b) alimentary canal (c) Liver (d) Bladder.

39. Which of the following organisms is one celled and free-living? (a) Volvox (b) Spirogyra (c) Rhizopus (d) Chlamydom.

40. Carbon dioxide enters the stomata during photosynthesis through the process known as --- (a) osmosis (b) active transport (c) diffusion (d) inhalation.

SECTION B: THEORY.

Instruction: Answer any three questions from this section.

1. (a) Define digestive system.

(b) Explain saprophytic feeding.

(d) Mention three (3) enzymes in the duodenum and their functions.

2. (a) Define dentition.

(b) Explain two (2) types of dentition with examples.

(d) List three (3) materials of blood plasma.

3. (a) Explain the following terms. (i) Aerobic respiration (ii) Anaerobic respiration.

(b) mention excretory structure of the following organisms (i) Amoeba (ii) Flat worm (iii) Earth worm (iv) Insect (v)

Crustacean.

4 (a) List three (3) functions of the kidney.

(b) Make a labeled diagram of mammalian kidney (Nephron).

5. (a) Draw and explain the mammalian heart.

(b) Explain briefly pulmonary circulation in mammals.

BIOLOGY SS 3 EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

1 Which of the following groups embraces the rest? A Class B Kingdom C Phylum D Species

2 The group Mollsca is characterized by the presence of- A jointed appendages B star-shaped bodies C backbones D soft, non-segmented bodies.

3 A virus can sometimes be regarded as a living organism because it A causes diseases in plants and animals B exists in a variety of shapes C reproduces in living cells D is easily visible with the aid of an electron microscope.

4 Which of these organs is considered vestigial in humans but still functional in other mammals? The A liver B appendix C rectum D stomach.

5 Which of the following pairs of organisms are photosynthetic? A Amoeba and Paramecium B Volvox and Rhizopus C Chlamydomonas and Euglena D Nostoc and Plasmodium.

6 Which of the following substances passes through the root cell membrane by osmosis? A Cell sap B Carbon dioxide C Oxygen D Water

7.The role of ATP include the following activities except A provision of energy to do work in the organism B transmission of nerve impulse C keeping the body warm in homoeothermic animals D producing water during aerobic respiration..

8 Only specially adapted mico-organisms are found in A salty water B humid air C moist soil D mouth cavities

9. Which of the following organisms causes syphilis? A Mycobacterium tuberculosis B Bordetella pertussis C Treponema palladium D Clostridium tetani.

10 A faster colour change of a dry cobalt chloride paper affixed to the lower surface of a leaf than the upper surface, indicates that A sunlight slows down water loss from the upper surface B the lower surface of the leaf has more stomata C sunlight causes the stomata on the upper surface to close D stomata are not present on the upper surface of a leaf..

11 Which of the following glands secretes a substance into the blood stream of a frightened person? A Adrenal gland B Salivary gland C Gastric glands D Parathyroid gland.

12Which of the following takes place when a person’s body temperature rises above 37oC? A Sweating and vasoconstriction B Panting and vasoconstriction C Sweating and vasodilation D Panting and vasodilation.

13 Which of the following is not a correct base pairing on the DNA strand? A Adenine, Thymine B Cytosine, Guanine C Guanine, Cytosine D Uracil, Thymine

14 Which of the following statements is not true of the light stage of photosynthesis? Chlorophyll is energized by sunlight B Water molecule is split into hydrogen and hydroxyl ions C Carbon iv oxide is reduced by hydrogen in atoms in NADPH2 D Water is formed

15 Which of the following juices contains the enzyme ptyalin? A Gastric juice B Pancreatic juice C Succus D Saliva

16 The density- dependent factors that operate to regulate a population size may include the following except -A shortage of food supply B fire outbreak C spread of diseases D increased competition.

17 Which of the following processes removes Carbon from the atmosphere? A Putrefaction B Photosynthesis C Volcanic eruption D Burning of fuels

18 A seed of a flowering plant can best be described as A radicle and plumule B the developed ovule C the embryo and endosperm D developed ovary.

19 Cytokinesis of mitosis is a process that ensures that A each daughter cell gets the necessary cell organelles B there is distribution of a complete set of genes into each daughter cell C daughter cells inherit new genetic combinations D warn out organelles are excluded from daughter cells.

20 The immediate product of meiosis in flowering plants is the A sporophyte B gametophyte C zygote D pollen grain.

21 DNA in eukaryotic cells is contained in the A central vacuole B nucleus C lysosome D Golgi body

22A man who is heterozygous for the disease haemophilia marries a woman who is double recessive for haemophilia, what percentage of their offsprings would have the disease? A 0% B 25% C 50% D 75%

23 A dairy farmer allowed only his milk producing cows to mate. In the succeeding generations of cows ,milk production increased. This outcome is an example of A artificial selection B natural selection C competition D cross fertilization.

24. An animal disease caused by a virus is ----. A Tobacco mosaic B Tuberculosis C Chicken pox D Gonorrhoea

25. An organism of the unicellular level of organization is A man B Paramecium C Hydra D Spirogyra.

26. Hydra is an example of ---- level of organization. A Cell B Tissue C System D Organ

27. Which of the following is not present in the nucleus of a cell? A Cytoplasm B Nucleus C Mitochondria D Genes.

28 Which of the following is not a constituent of a DNA? A Purine B Phosphate C Cytocine D Uracil

29 The bursting of mammalian red blood cell in hypotonic solution is known as --. A plasmolysis B haemolysis C turgidity D ex-osmosis

30. The mechanism of movement in an Amoeba is by – A pseudopodium B flagellum C cytoplasmic streaming D cilia.

31 Budding is a type of asexual reproduction found in – A Amoeba B Hydra C Paramecium D Euglena

32 The cell division which is responsible for sexual reproduction is – A meiosis B mitosis C binary fission D fragmentation.

33. An example of chemosynthetic autotroph is – A green plants B viruses C bacteria D fungi

34. An instrument used in investigating the phototropic and geotropic responses of the shoot and root respectively is the – A klinostat B hydrometer C photometer D hygrometer

35. The excretory organ of the crustacean is the – a nephridium B green gland C flame cell D contractile vacuole

36. The respiratory organ of a plant is /are – A stomata and lenticels B phloem and xylem C cambium D spiracle and tubules

37 Which of the following is NOT a biological significance of the mammalian skeleton? A Protection B Shape C Production of red blood cells D Production of bile

38A hydrostatic skeleton is found in – A man B insects C earthworm D birds

39 A vertebra with prominent neural spine is the – A thoracic vertebra B atlas C axis D lumbar

40 The head of femur articulates with the pelvis at the – A acetabulum B glenoid cavity C olecranon process D coracoid process.

41Which of these is Not a supporting tissue in plant? A Xylem B Cambium C Collenchyma cells D Sclerenchyma cells

42 Which of the following is not an excretory organ? A Heart B Lungs C Kidney D Skin

43 Ultra-filtration occurs in the – A Bowman’s capsule B glomerulus C Henle’s loop D Distal convoluted tubule.

44 The internal environment is made up of blood and – A lymph B cells C plasma D water

45 Over secretion of thyroxine leads to – A over activity B sluggishness C weakness D dwarfish

46The part of the tongue sensitive to sweet and salt tastes are – A tip B sides C back D optic cells.

47 Which of these eye defects is corrected with diverging lens? A Hypermetropia B Myopia C Astigmatism D Presbyopia.

48 A reducing sugar can be detected using – A Benedict’s solution B Iodine solution C Millon’s reagent D osmic acid.

49 The nerve centre of the mammalian tooth is the – A dentine B pulp cavity C enamel D cement

50 The ecology of many organisms is referred to as – A autecology B ecosystem C community synecology.

Section B- Theory : Answer any three questions from this section.1

What is variation? b List three examples each of continuous and discontinuous variations c Mention three uses of variation.

2The result of the fusion of male and female gametes has different names at different times . List the names using these stated periods of time A day 1- day 14 B 2 week-8 weeks C 8weeks -36 weeks. Ii Mention two diseases that are sex-linked.

3 What is the fate of the following floral parts after fertilization? i Ovary ii Ovule iii Definitive nucleus iv Integument. B Give one example each of I Capsule, ii Caryopsis iii Legume iv Drupe v Cypsela vi Sorosis

4 The phenotype of an individual is determined by many factors. List just five of them.

5The termites are regarded as social insects. Mention one striking thing about them, then list their castes with their functions

PHYSICS SS 1 QUESTIONS

INSTRUCTION: Answer all the questions in section A and any other three (3) questions in section B.

A car travels 3km due south and then 4km west. What is its displacement from the starting point? (A) N7kmE (B) S10kmE(C) S15kmE (D) S5kmW

Which of the following is not a fundamental S.I unit? (A) Meter (B) Ampere (C) Kelvin (D) Radian

The motion described by a simple pendulum clock is? (A) Random (B) Oscillatory (C) Rotational (D) Linear

Which the following is the dimension of velocity correct? (A) LT2 (B) LT3 (C) LT-1 (D) MLT-1

The resultant of two forces acting on an object is maximum if the angle between them is? (A) 1800 (B) 900 (C) 450 (D) 00

To determine the weight of an object you could (A) use a beam balance (B) use a spring balance (C) find the force necessary to give it a certain acceleration (D) use none of these method

A palm fruit dropped to the ground from the top of a tree 45cm tall. How long does it take to reach the ground? (g=10mls2) (A) 7.5s (B) 9s (C) 3s (D) 5s

The slope of a displacement time graph is equal to? (A) Acceleration (B) Uniform velocity (C) Uniform speed (D) Instantaneous speed

Calculate the distance between two position in space p(4,6) and Q (2,4) (A)2 (B) 3 unit (C) 5 units(D) 2.83 units

A man walks 1km due east and then 1km due west. His displacement is? (A) 1KM N150E (B) 1KM300E (C) (D) N60 E

Which of the following is incorrect? (A) distance is a scalar(B)displacement is a vector (C) speed is a vector(D) velocity is a vector

Which of the following is a set of vector(A) force, mass and moment(B) acceleration, velocity and moment(c) mass, weight and density (C) mass, volume and density

The force that opposes the relatively sliding motion of two surfaces is called (A) tension (B) thrust (C) friction (D) weight

A car travels at an average speed of 100kmh-1 what distance is covered in 5 minutes? (A) 1.78km (B) 20km (C) 8.3 km (D) 3.8km

Which of the following is NOT an industrial unit (A) kilometer (B)Horse power (C) Barrel (D) Ampere

A ball is released from a height above the ground. Find its velocity after 5 seconds. Take gas 10ms2 (A) 50ms-1 (B) 0.5ms-1 (C) 2ms-1 (D) 10ms-1

17. Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived? I. Area II. Thrust III. Pressure IV mass (A) I, II, III and IV (B) I, II, and III only (C) I, II and IV only (D) I and III only

18. A man will exert the greatest pressure on a bench when he (A) lies flat on his back (B) Lie flat on his belly (C) stands on both feet (D) Stands on the toes of one foot

19. A body moves with a constant speed but has acceleration. This is possible if it (A) moves in a straight line (B) moves in a circle (C) is oscillating (D) is in equilibrium

20. A body moving with uniform acceleration has two points (5, 15, and 20, 60) on the velocity _ time graph of its motion. Calculate a (A) 0.25ms-2 (B) 3.0m/s2 (c) 4.00 m/s2 (d) 9.00ms-2

21. An orange fruit drops to the ground from the top a tree 45m tall. How long It take to reach the ground? (g= 10m/s2) (a) 3.0s (b) 4.5s (c) 6.0s (d) 9.0s

22. The product PV where P is pressure and V is volume has the same unit as (a) Power (b) Work (c) Acceleration (d) Impulse

23. The unit of young modulus is (a) NM (b) N(c) NM-2(d) NM2

24. A body accelerates uniformly from rest at the rate of 3m/s2 for 8 seconds. Calculate the distance covered by the body during the acceleration. (a)12m (b)24m (c)48m (d) 96m

25. Which of the following has the same unit as the moment of a force? (a)Force (b) Power (c) Work (d) Momentum

26. Which of the following type of motion does a body undergo when acted upon by a couple?

(a)Vibrational (b) Translational (c) Rotational (d) Random

27. An object is said to undergo oscillatory motion when it moves. (a)In an erratic manner (b) to and fro about a fix point (c) in a circular part (d) a long a continuous part from the starting point

28. Uniform speed occurs when there is equal change of (a) Distance in equal times (b) Displacement in equal times (c) Velocity in equal times (d) Acceleration in equal times

29. Which of the following instrument is suitable for making the most accurate measurement of the internal diameter of a test tube? (a) A meter rule (b) A pair of calipers (c) A micrometer screw gauge (d) A tape rule.

30. A body moving at a constant speed accelerates when it is in? (a) Rectilinear motion (b) Translational motion (c) Circular motion (d) Vibrational motion

31. For which of the under listed quantity is the derived unit ML2T-2 correct

Moment of a force ii. Work iii. Acceleration

I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and II.

32 Two particles X and Y starting from rest cover the same distance. The acceleration of X is twice that of Y. The ration of the time taken by X to that taken by Y is. (A) 1/2 (B) 2 (C) (D)

33________ is that in which events are distinguishable with reference to before and after.

34 A bee flying from one flower to another is an example of motion _____________

35 A physical quantity with numerical value is called _____________while the symbols represented by [L], [M], [T], means _________________

36 To measure the diameter of a thin wire you should use ______________

37 The dimension of the physical quantity [ML2T-3] is for ________________

38 When using a stop watch to measure time, the experiment is usually repeated and the mean value of time is taken. This is to: (A) reduce the systematic error (B) reduce erratic error (C) reduce random error (D) check the accuracy of the watch.

39 The unit of potential difference is? (A) Ampere (B) volts (C) ohm (D) gramme.

40 An object of mass 0.5kg has kinetic energy of 25J. Calculate its velocity. (A)10 m/s (B) 25 m/s (C) 100m/s (D) 120m/s

SECTION B

1ai. Define Friction.

ii. Differentiate between static friction and dynamic friction.

b. A body of mass 10kg rest on a rough inclined plane whose angle of tilt is variable. Ɵ is gradually increased until the body start to slide down the plane at 60˚. The coefficient of the limiting friction between the body and the plane is:

2. Write the derivative of the following physical quantities,

(i). volume (ii). Velocity (iii). Area (iv). Density (v). Acceleration (vi). Force (vii). Pressure (viii). Momentum (ix). Work (x). Power.

3. Define (i). speed (ii). Velocity (iii). Acceleration.

b. A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly for 5 seconds until it obtain a velocity 30ms˙1. It then travels with uniform velocity for 15 seconds before decelerating uniformly to rest in 10 seconds.

i. Sketch the graph of the motion

ii. Using the graph, Calculate;

a. acceleration during the first 5 seconds . b. Deceleration during the last 10 seconds.

c. Total distance covered throughout the motion.

4a. Define time,

Aii. How many seconds are there in the month of June?

bi. Differentiate between fundamental quantities and derived quantities. Give two examples each.

bii. Calculate the distance between the two points A(3,4) B(-1,-1).

5a. in a tabular form, state five (5) differences mass and weight.

Bi. Explain what is meant by reading accuracy of an instrument. What is the accuracy reading of a vernier calipers? bii. Define relative motion and oscillatory motion.

SS2 PHYSICS QUESTION

1. --- is one of the precautions to be observed when determining specific heat capacity of a solid by mixture method

2. The numerical value of absolute zero temperature is ---------------

3. If temperature and mass of a gas is constant, the relationship between pressure and volume is

a.Direct b. Inverse

4. A decrease in pressure leads to a decrease in the boiling point of a liquid------------- true or false

5. Which of the following is not a thermometric substance (a) mercury (b) alcohol (c) water (d) gas

6. Convert 2.3 atm into mmHg. a. 2300 mmHg b. 1750 mmHg c. 2.3 mmHg d. 0.0030 mmHg

7. The volume of a gas is increased from 150.0 mL to 350.0 mL by heating it. If the original temperature of the gas was 25.0 ˚C, what will its final temperature be (in ˚C)? a. 146˚C b. 10.7˚C c. 58.3˚C d. 422˚C e. 695˚C

8. A gas exerts a pressure of one atm at standard temperature (273.0 K). What must the temperature be adjusted to for the gas to exert a pressure of 4.00 atm? (Give your answer in ˚C) a. −205˚C b. 68.3˚C c.819˚C

d. 1092˚C

9. A line connecting particles in phase in an advancing wave is called -------------

10. When you touch a cold piece of ice with your finger, energy flows

A) from the ice to your finger. B) from your finger to the ice. C) actually both ways

11. A substance that heats up relatively quickly has a

A) low specific heat capacity. B) high specific heat capacity.

12. Pour a unit mass of water at 400C into a unit mass of water at 200C and the final

Temperature of the two becomes A) more than 300C. B) less than 300C. C) at or about 300C

13. The vibrations of a transverse wave move; a. at right angles to the direction of wave travel. b. in the same direction as the wave travels. c. above and below the moving wave.

d. opposite to the direction of wave travel

14. Which of the following waves is not mechanical ______________ (a) Wave in pipe (b) water wave (c) radio wave (d) Sound wave

15. Compressions and rarefactions are characteristic of a. transverse waves.

b. longitudinal waves.

16. In a laboratory, Bunsen burner is used to increase the temperature of lime from 10 °C to 50 °C with the thermal energy of 80000 J. If the mass of the lime is 20 kg the specific heat capacity of the lime would be A. 25 J kg-1 °C-1 B. 50 J kg-1 °C-1 C. 75 J kg-1 °C-1 D. 100 J kg-1 °C-1

17. A pure substance would freeze or solidify at its A. boiling point B. condensation point

C. melting point D. sublimation point

18. The amount of energy required to change a given mass of liquid to gas and vice versa without any change in temperature is termed as A. Latent Heat of Fusion B. Latent Heat of Vaporization C. Heat Capacity D. Specific Heat Capacity

19. The wire of a platinum resistance thermometer has a resistance of 3.5Ω at 0°c and 10.5Ω at 100°(c) calculate the temperature of the wire when its resistance is 7.5Ω (a) 7.5Ω (b) 78°c (c) 57.14°c (d) 250C

20. The amount of thermal energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of substance by 1 K (1 °C) is termed as A. Heat capacity B. Specific Heat Capacity C. Latent Heat D. Specific Latent Heat

21. If the latent heat of fusion is 120 J and the mass of the object is 10 kg, the specific latent heat would be A. 8.3 Jkg1 B. 10 Jkg1 C. 12 Jkg1 D. 120 Jkg1

22. Water has the specific heat capacity of A. 3900 J kg-1 °C-1 B. 4000 J kg-1 °C-1 C. 4100 J kg-1 °C-1 D. 4200 J kg-1 °C-1

23. Interference is a property of a. light waves. b. sound waves. c. water waves.

d. all of these. e. none of these.

24. Polarization is a property of A. transverse waves. b. longitudinal waves. c. both. d. neither.

25. Which of the following property is a consequence of superposition of waves?

a. reflection b. refraction c. interference d. polarization

26. Which of the following is the speed of a wave traveling with a wavelength λ, frequency f, and period T

A. v = λ/f B. v =f/λ C. v = λ·f D. v = f·T E. v = f/T

27. Which of the following statements is true about longitudinal waves? A. They always have the same frequencies B. They always have the same velocities C. They always have the same wavelengths D. They always travel through a dense medium E. The particles vibrate along the same direction as the wave motion

28. Two wave pulses with equal positive amplitudes travel on a cord approaching each other. What is the result of the oscillations when the pulses reach the same point? A. It is constructive interference with twice the amplitude B. It is destructive interference with zero amplitude C. It is constructive interference with slightly greater amplitude D. It is constructive interference with the negative amplitude E. The standing wave is produced

29. Two particles that are at the same distance from the resting/equilibrium position and traveling in the same direction in a wave are said to be in --------------

30. Liquid nitrogen has a boiling point of -196ºC. This corresponds to

a. −469 K b. 77 K c. 153 K d. 469 K e. −196 K

31. the bouncing back of a wave after hitting a plane surface is-----------

32. Waves that can pass through vacuum as well as material medium are known as --------33. The temperature of water in a breaker is 40 °C. Its value in Fahrenheit scale is a.110 °F b.104 °F c. 130 °F d. 116 °F

34. Consider the wave equation y=10sin7(x-5ot). What does the number 10 in the equation represent? (a) Acceleration (b) Speed (c) Amplitude (d) Wave length

35.The inverse of the time required for a wave to complete one full cycle is called ______________ (a) Wave length (b) Period (c) Frequency (d) Period

36. Plane wave passing through a narrow gap emerge a circular wave. The phenomena is known as _______________ (a) Interference (b) Dispersion (c) Refraction (d) Diffraction

37. The temperature at which the atmosphere is completely saturated with water and below which dew begins to form is called a) mist point b) the fog point c) dew point d) air saturation point

38. Evaporation causes cooling…a) true b) false c) not sure

39. Surface area affects the rate of boiling….a)true b) false c)not sure

40. Mountain climbers requires pressure pots to cook at high altitudes ..a)true b)false c) not

THEORY

1. A PIECE OF COPPER BALL OF 20g AT 2000C IS PLACED IN A COPPER CALORIMETER OF MASS 60g CONTAINING 50g OF WATER AT 300C, IGNORING HEAT LOSSES, CALCULATE FINAL STEADY TEMPERATURE OF THE MIXTURE (SHC OF WATER = 4200J/KgK, SHC OF CALORIMETER = 400J/KgK) (b) Give three differences between evaporation and boiling c) State Boyle’s law

2) A plane progressive wave is represented by the equation. y = 0.5sin (100 πt─ 100πx/17 )

Where y is in meters, t in seconds and x in meters. Calculate the

Frequency of the wave ii Period of the wave iii Wave length of the wave

Iv Speed of the wave. V. Wave number (k)

2b. A radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 6 x 105Hz. If the speed of the wave in air is 3 x 108ms-1, calculate its wavelength.

C) Mention three factors that affect rate of evaporation

3) Define wave b) How would you produce a transverse and longitudinal wave using a slinky? Illustrate with diagrams showing the following: crest, trough, amplitude, wavelength, compression, rarefaction, direction of particle vibration, direction of energy c) give one example each for transverse and longitudinal waves respectively

4) 1200cm3of a gas is collected at 370C and 600mmHg, convert this volume to STP

b) Calculate the quantity of heat needed to change the temperature of 60g of ice at 0°c to water at 80°c. (Specific latent heat of fusion of ice 3.36x105Jkg-1. (s.h.c of water 4200Jkg-1k-1) c) what is fundamental interval?

5) Briefly explain with diagrams the terms: Diffraction, Refraction, wave front, Reflection and polarization.

SUBJECT: PHYSICS FOR SS 3

TIME: 2 HOURS

PART I

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

(A) State two applications of electrolysis (B) Explain the word Cations (3Marks)

List three observations in support of de-Broglies assumptions that moving particles behave like waves (3Mark)

Describe with the aid of a diagram, how a wave can be plane polarized. (3Marks)

Define (I) Elasticity (II) Young’s Modulus (III) Force constant

A force of 40N is applied at the length of a wire 4m long and it produces an extension of 0.24mm. If the diameter of the wire is 2.00mm, calculate the (i) stress on the wire (ii) strain in the wire (3Marks)

PART II

(A) Define specific heat capacity

(B) I. with the aid of a labelled diagram, described an experiment to determine the specific heat capacity of copper using a copper bell

II. State two precautions necessary to obtain accurate results

(C) A piece of copper block of mass 24g at 230oc is placed in a copper calorimeter of mass 60g containing 54g of water at 31oc. Assuming heat losses are negligible, calculate the final steady temperature of the mixture. Specific heat capacity of water= 4200 J kg-1 K-1 Specific heat capacity of copper= 400J kg-1 K-1

(D) Explain timbre and overtones (15 Marks)

Define

(I) Reactance (II) Impedance (2 Marks)

(I) Explain resonant frequency of an RLC circuit ( 2 Mark) (II) State the three types of emission spectra and name one source each which produces spectra, you mentioned above ( ½ Marks)

A source of e.m.f 2400 and frequency 50HZ is connected to a series arrangement of a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor when he current in the capacitor is 10A, the potential difference across the resistor is 140V and that across the inductor is 50V. Calculate the: (I) Potential difference across the capacitor (II) Capacitance of the capacitor (III) Inductance of the Inductor ( 6 Marks)

Draw and label one vector diagram for the potential differences across the inductor, the capacitor and the resistor ( 1 Marks)

(A) If the atomic mass radium of radium is 226.0254024 and that of radon-222 is 222.017574. Cal the energy released during an alpha decay radium to radon (atomic mass of He= 4.0026024 J) ( 3 Marks)

(B) State two: (I) Properties of x-rays (II) uses of x-rays other than those in medicine. (III) Hazards of x-rays (6 Marks)

I. Explain chain reaction

II. State one condition for chain reaction to occur ( 1 Marks)

(D) State two components in a nuclear reactor used to control chain reaction. (2 Marks)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE SS 1

SECTION A: ESSAY: Answer only one question in this section and write not less than 350 words.

A friend of yours has been absent from the school for about a mouth due to illness. Write a letter to the describing some interesting things that happened in the school during the period and expressing your wish for a quick recovery.

Write an article for publication in a national newspaper, on the dangers of drug abuse among youths.

You are the first speaker in a debate on the topic: Female children are more beneficial than male children to their parents. Write out your speech against the motion.

Tell a story that ends with the advice: ‘’cut you coat according to your cloth’’.

Write a letter to the minister of education of your country on the poor state of schools in your area and its effects on the performance of students

Section B: Comprehension: Read the passage carefully and answer all the questions

We are today faced with a great ecological problem for which we are largely responsible The planet, earth, the only home of man is bathed in a steady rain of the sun rays. Most of these rays supply us heat and light, but small percentage is deadly. These are the ultraviolet – B rays (or UV B). If these were to get to the surface of the earth directly, they would kill us off. Luckily the earth surface is shielded from these rays by the ozone layer, but sadly enough this ozone layer is being destroyed by man.

The ozone layer formed from a kind of oxygen with three atoms (O3) instead of normal two (O2). Ozone occurs naturally in the stratosphere, several kilometers above the earth’s surface. It absorbs the dangerous UV B rays but allow the much needed safe light to pass through. There in the stratosphere, it is constantly being created by the sun’s ray, thus it is a self-repairing shield. But man is now gradually destroying this vital shield with his industrial gases. The most lethal of these gases are the chlorofluoro carbons or CFC which are used in making all kind of foamed plastic products propellant in spray cans, coolant in air conditioner and refrigerators and solvent to clean electronic equipment.

Down here, they are not lethal. But after they have leaked from air conditioners, plastic, foam, cups, etc., they slowly drift up to the stratosphere where, bombarded by ultraviolet rays, they break up at last, releasing chlorine, the real ozone killer. Sadly, one chlorine molecule may remain active for a century destroying thousands of ozone molecules.

Question:

What is the greatest ecological problem man faces todays?

What is the ozone layer made of?

Where it is normally found?

Describe the importance of the ozone layer.

How is man destroying the ozone layer?.

Give the name the gas specifically mentioned as very dangerous to the ozone layer.

What kind of figurative expression is: The planet earth the only home of man, is bathed in a steady rain of the sun’s rays?

……which are used in making all kind of foamed plastic products

What grammatical name is given to this expression?

What is the function in the sentence

(h) for each of the following words find another word or phrase that means the same and can replace it as used in the passage

(I) shielded (II) absorbs (III) Vital (IV) Lethal (V) Active

Section C: summary : Read the following question carefully and answer the summary question

The story of warfare reveal that man has come a long war in the beginning a man contented himself with simple hand hurled missiles. Man threw stones at other animals in warfare, as his enemies. Destruction are minimal, as this is determined by the size and roughness of the stone and the energy of the thrower. Even when man later invented the catapult, destruction was only slightly higher. The primitive catapult was made from tough rope at one end of which was tied a big stone. Its most limiting was that such a missile, no matter how strong the force behind it, could kill only one person at a time.

Things were relatively easy for the assailant with the invention of the bow and arrow. For the first time, man utilized very little strength to bring down his enemy, even at a distance position. The size of the bow the elasticity of the string, and the sharpness of the arrow, much more than the rude energy of the thrower, determined how fast arrow travelled. The weapon became even more significant when man later fix a sharp metal to the tip of the arrow. And when that metal was dyed in highly lethal poison, it became even more effective in killing man.

It’s the coming of metal, farm implement where developed. But man, soon turn some of these especially the machete, into weapon of combat. The sword is thus a close cousin of the machete. Used in combat, the sword especially when carried by a very skilled fighter on a horse could wreck more havoc than the bow and arrow. It is that the foremost conqueror of the classic period from Alexander the great to Julius Caesar,used this simple hand-borne instrument of combat. And this in its simple scabbard reigned for centuries.

Things took a dramatic turn with the invention of gun and bullet. The arrival of gun introduced the destruction of human lives at an unprecedented rate with the most elementary gun. In the handoff foot soldier, it became possible to count casualties in hundreds in a single encounter. With practically no physical effort, apart from the moving of a finger on the trigger, the highly lethal bullet is sent through the barrel at a speed much faster than that of sound. The enemy, the enemy, at a considerable distance, may thus be brought down without even the shooting or seeing the assailant.

The development of grenades, bombs, missiles, nuclear, and chemical warheads have made all previous weapons appear little more than toys. With bombs delivered by fast-flying airplanes, and nuclear and chemical warheads borne to their distant destinations by unmanned missiles, destruction of cities and infact, whole countries within a matter of is now a great possibility. Today man doesn’t need to be physically present to haul or throw the spare or send the arrow the missile has now replace all these. And it does not need to be physically sent by an individual. Electronic and computers do the lunching, and man dies in hundreds of thousands.

Question : in five(5) sentences, one for each, summarize the different type of warfare and their relative effectiveness.

Section D: Answer all the question in this section

I made a visit to the university teaching hospital the other day. At the 1………where accident 2……….are treated, the doctors were battling to save the life of a man who had just been knocked down in a road accident. They 3……….the injured man thoroughly with the aid of several 4……….instrument such as 5…………used in measuring body temperature and 6………used in listing to the sound of the heart and the lungs. By using 7………several internal part of the patient’s body were photographed 8……… and painkilling injection were given. His bleeding was stopped. The nurse 9……….his wounds and he was carried on a 10……….to the special care 11………. Where those under 12……..care are kept. The doctor asked the nurse to keep the patient under close observation.

In each of the question 13-15 choose the opposite in meaning to the words or phrase underlined

13. The manager described him as an unindustrious worker(A) a courageous. (B) a diligent (C) a careful (D) an intelligent

14. The judge who passed the sentence was disinterested (A) partial (B) interested (C) wicked (D) fair

15. Adoka is a chatty fellow. (A) an unsociable (B) a selfish (C) a generous (D) a stupid.

In each of the question 16-20 choose the question nearest in meaning to the word or phrase underlined

16. He has been described as a laconic person. (A) tantrum (B) unsociable (c) loquacious (D) unassuming

17. The politician was accused of procrastinating in a very serious manner. (A) taking side (B) wasting time (C) prevaricating (D) rationalizing

18. Elelu was described as a very studious boy. (A) Bookish (B) industrious (c) stubborn (D) quit

19. The man said he was shocked at the preposterous accusation (A) debatable (B) damaging (C) absurd (D) wicked

20. Their revival in the competition was shorts lived as they lost yet another match (A) long lasting (B) unimpressive (C) decisive (D) transient

From the group of word or group of words lettered A-D choose the word or group of words that best complete each of the following sentence .

21.Ifoma: they shouldn’t be hoarding fuel Aisha:……. (A) yes,they shouldn’t (B) no, they shouldn’t (C) yes, they shouldn’t have (D) no, they shouldn’t have.

22. The principal arrived in company -------his wife (A)of (B)with (C)of (D)by

23. The vice principal as congratulated us -------our success at quiz competition. (A) upon (B ) for (C) in (D) to

24. Olu has been admitted ---------the university. (A) into (B)onto (C)in (D)to

25. He went to lagos -----------his own accord. (A)with (B)by (C) on (D)of

26. “-----------“he warned (A) don’t make noise(B) don’t make some noise (C) don’t make a noise (D) don’t make some noises

27. We searched ---------- for the lost bunch of keys (A) every nook and corner. (B)every nook and crannies (C) every and nook cranny (D) every nook and corners

28. The government is doing ---------- best to solve the unemployment issue. (A)its (B)their (C)her (D)it’s

29. Udoh is the only one of the council members who ---------- the plan. (A)oppose (B) have opposed (C) opposes (D)want to oppose

30. Is education a right a ----------- (A) privilege (B) privileged (C) priviledge (D) priveledge

In each of the questions 31/35 choose the option that best explains the meaning conveyed in the sentence.

31. I only saw Akin at the party (A) it was only Akin that I saw at the party (B) All I did at the party was to see Akin (C) I spoke to everyone at the party except Akin (D)I probably saw other people beside Akin

32. I spoke to Ifeoma and Abu and Bose retuned to the base (A) Bose retuned to the base, why I spoke to Ifeoma and Abu (B)it was only Ifeoma I spoke to, why Abu and Bose went to the base (C) After I had spoken to ifeoma and Abu,Bose retuned to the base (D)I spoke to ifeoma, Abu and Bose retuned to the base

33 the woman said that her son sowed the wind and reaped the whirl wind. (A)her son reaped the benefits of years of hard work (B) her son’s action boomeranged badly (C)her son got more reward for his hard work that he had expected (D)her son got fewer reward for his service than had expected.

34. She said she was in a bad odor with her husband’s family.(A) she was out favor with her in-law (B)her in-laws thought she had an unpleasant body odor (C) she did not like her in-laws (D) her in-law were suing for divorce.

35. Tsado is fond of dropping names.(A) he is very insulting (B) he says nasty things about people behind their back (C) he tries to impress people by mentioning famous people.(D) he praises people he already knows.

From the word letter A-D choose the word that has the correct stress

36. Continuation (A) continuation (B) continuation(C) CONtinuation(D) countinuAtion.

37. photographic(A)photographic (B) PHOtographic (C) photograPHIC (D) photoGRAphic.

38. Associate (A) AS-so-ci-ate (B) as-SO-ciate (C) as-so-CI-ate (D) as-so-ci-ATE

39. Expatiate (A) EX-pa-ti-ate (B) ex-PA-ti-ate. (C) ex-pa-TI-ate (D) ex-pa-ti-ATE

40. Scientific (A) SCI-en-tif-ic (B) sci-EN-tif-ic (C) sci-en-TIF-ic (D) sci-en-tif-ic.

Wednesday, December 13, 2023

SS 2 Examinations Psst Questions (Home Fun for December 2023)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE SS2

SECTION A: INSTRUCTION; ANSWER ONE QUESTION IN THIS SECTION

YOUR ESSAY SHOULD NOT BE LESS THAN 450 WORDS

1. Write a letter to the chairman of the PTA of your school suggesting three ways in which parents can work together with teachers to create a better learning environment in the school.

2. You have been invited to take part in an inter-school debate, the topic of which is schooling in a village is more advantageous than schooling in a city. Write your speech for or against the motion.

3. Write a story to illustrate the saying: AS ONE MAKES ONE’S BED, SO ONE MUST LIE ON IT.

4. You are in the final year in secondary school. Write a letter to your uncle, who is an influential person in the society, telling him what you intend to do next and asking for assistance.

5. write an essay titled; INSECURITY IN NIGERIA

SECTION B (COMPREHENSION)

READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS ON IT.

The mansion by the roadside in my village reminds me of a similar sight in the state capital, three decades ago. Standing conspicuously, by the highway in the heart of the city. The mansion posed a bold challenge to road users. It belonged to chief Koko who was regarded as untouchable in his community. Nobody dared step on his toes. Motorists has learnt to steer clear of it. it was generally assumed that moving close to it could cost one one’s life.

Then came a governor who decided to widen all the major roads in the capital city. He stressed that this would involve the demolition of buildings that fell within twenty metres from the centre of the road. However, although the governor also stressed that compensations would be paid, chief Koko was not impressed. He made it clear that nothing should tamper with his mansion warning that whoever defied him risked dire consequences.

Not long after the governor’s official proclamation, newspaper reporters had a field day speculating on the unprecedented confrontation with chief. With time, news filtered out that he asserted that whoever dared him would certainly end up where other like them had gone. The message was clear-defiance meant death so, reporters were pleading for a new route to circumvent the mansion. However, the governor made it clear that there would be no retreat.

Before long, work started on the project. One of the first casualties was a post office that was just some metres within the specified distance. It was cut into two. Soon, the frontage of a school nearby also followed. But, it was assumed that things would be different with the mansion whose owner tolerated no effrontery. Day by day, the project moved closer to the mansion, with the heavy machine levelling one structure after another. Then, when it was clear that the mansion was next in line, the driver of the bulldozer requested to governor to spare his life since children were still very young.

The following morning, people got a shocker; the governor himself showed up at the site and asked for the key to the bulldozer, ready to assume the role of the driver. The driver, surveying the possible consequence, tearfully climbed up and pleaded that the governor should please care for his children after his demise. The governor announced that if anything was to happen, he not the driver , would be the target.

So, the driver got to work and the mansion collapsed like a pack of cards. Press photographers went to town with the cameras, hoping to capture chief Koko in action. But nothing unusual happened, and soon the whole structure became a rubble.

The aftermath? everybody thought either or both men would soon belong to the great beyond. But this much I know, that governor is still around; and so is the driver.

What opinion did people have of chief Koko?

What does the expression, unprecedented confrontation tell us about the governor?

Why was it necessary to demolish buildings?

When the driver said that his children were still very young, what did he imply?

……..people got a shocker. Why was the governor’s action a shocker?

What did people expect chief Koko to do after the demolition of his mansion?

Not long after the governor’s official proclamation. i. what grammatical name is given to this expression as it is used in the passage?. ii. What is its function?

Quote a simile used in the sixth paragraph of the passage.

For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and which can replace it as it is used in the passage;

i. Assumed ii. Retreat iii. Specified iv. Showed up v. Collapsed

SECTION C; SUMMARY

READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS ON IT.

Every normal human being would want to put his or her feet up once in a while and relax, but, obviously, one cannot relax all the time. A little work does not kill. Rather, it keeps one active and mentally alert.

Some people think that the invention of robots is the best thing that ever happened to man. They are convinced that the invention has saved the day because robots are ideal workers who work without complaining or getting tired. Robots never reveal company secrets for any reason – corruption, fame or blackmail.

The admirers of robots think that once a robot is programmed, it can do any piece of work with precision over a long period without slowing down, getting bored or even going on break or vacation. Robots can be made to perform any task. They do not grumble usually demand. They also work under conditions which human beings would not accept due to either incapability or attitude.

One good thing about the robot is that any of its damaged parts can be replaced for work to go on effectively. On the other hand, if a human being loses a vital part of the body, that part may not be replaced for work to go on as effectively as before.

There is no doubt at all that the robot is useful but I strongly believe that the human being is more efficient that the robot in many ways. Human beings are sensitive, thinking beings who are flexible and can therefore control their actions. Thus, they can perform more fuctions than robots. Since human beings can think, discriminate and make value judgements, they can solve problems on the spur of the moment. The robot, on the other hand, cannot do this because what it has been programmed for is all that it is capable of doing. If a robot is wrongly programmed, it will continue to produce the wrong result until its programme is corrected.

The human being can take the initiative in many things. He can communicate or even call for assistance when need be, which the robot cannot do. The human being can be appealed to, to make some crucial changes, he can also learn from observing what goes on the modify what he is doing.

It is clear that even though robots are useful, they are deficient in many ways, and therefore cannot have an advantage over human beings. In crisis, the robot cannot face the challenge. It neither reacts not reflects.

The robot is designed and programmed by human beings. How then can the created be superior to the creator? Robots are created to assist human beings and relieve them of some of their burdens, not to take over completely from them.

In three sentences, one for each, state why the admirers of robots think that robots are more efficient than human beings.

In three sentences, one for each, state three advantages which the human being has over the robot.

SECTION D (OBJECTIVE )

From the list of words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the option that best completes the sentence.

I_____ have to take up the challenge yesterday . (A) didn’t (B) shouldn’t (C) wouldn’t (D) couldn’t .

Nobody ______ to die young . (A) wants (B) is wanting (C) will be wanting (D) want

_____ is good for the heart . (A) walk (B) is walking (C) walks (D)

_______ ,I was a tomboy . (A) Growing up (B) Grow—up (C) As growing (D) A growing

Nobody _____ anything good from him. (A) expects (B) expect (C) expecting (D) to expect.

I_____ there before him. (A) go (B) be (C) am (D) got

We _____ from the tribe. (A) are coming (B) Come (C) be (D) came

James and John cooked the food all by ______ (A) theyselves (B) theirselves (C) ourselves (D) themselves .

He boxers sized ______ up. (A) each other (B) one another (C) every other (D) all other.

The group helped ______ with their essays. (A) each other (B) one another (C) another (D) each one.

From the words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences , choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

(11)By nature armed robbers are ruthless , I have seen a ______ one among them , (A) humane (B) barbarous (C) Ferocious (D) mean .

(12) The taxi driver slowed while overtaking the lorry when the proper thing to do was for him to have _____ (A) throttled (B) accelerated (C) expedited (D) despatched .

(13) The probationary workers do not have same right as ______ staff (A) approved (B) dismissed (C) Postponed (D) confirmed

(14) The journey by road _____ where the rail journey ended (A) concluded (B) originated (C) commenced (D) indifferent

(15) Instead of laughing about this serious matter ,you should be (A) whimpering (B) sober (C) Indifferent (D) bitter

(16) After years of hostility the two communities now live in_____ (A) amity (B) security (C) enmity (D) bondage

(17) Mrs. gbogbo is always moody while her husband is forever _____ (A) cheerful (B) willing (C) tender (D) loving

(18) The judge ruled that the first transaction was valid while the second was _______ (A) abnormal (B) legal (C) valueless (D) Void

(19) Musa” s _____ contrasts with his brother s indolence ( A) indulgence (B) laziness ( C) labour (D) abstinence

(20) Elders are expected to be ______ where youths are green (A) rash (B) red (C) experience (D) Callous.

In each of the following sentences , the word that receives the emphatic stress is written in CAPITAL LETTERS from the questions letter A to D, choose the one to which the given sentence is the appropriate answer.

21. Tunde is visiting his UNCLE in Abuja next month? (a) is Tunde visiting his aunt in Abuja next month? (b) Is Tunde visiting his uncle in kaduna next month? (c) is Tunde visiting his uncle in Abuja Next week? (d) Is Olu visiting his uncle in Abuja next month?

22. Yemi scrubs the floor every SATURDAY (a) Does Ngozi scrub the floor every Saturday? (b) Does Yemi sweep the floor every Saturday? (c) Does Yemi scrub the floor every Saturday? (d) Does Yemis scrub the wall every Saturday?

23. The PASSENGER boat docked at Accra yesterday (a) did the passenger boat dock at Accra last week? (b) Did the cargo boat dock at Accra yesterday? (c) Did the passenger boat dock at Tema yesterday? (d) Did the cargo boat sail from Accra yesterday?

24. Kemis’s watch is made of GOLD (a) is Bisi’s watch made of gold? (b) is Kemi’s necklace make of gold? (c) Is kemi’s watch plated with gold? (d) Is Kemi’s watch made of silver?

25. The FINAL match of the hockey competition was exciting (a) was the final match of the hockey competition boring? (b) Was the final match of the football competition excting? (c) Was the preliminary match of the hockey competition exciting? (d) Was the final match of the football competition boring?

From the words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is used in the sentence.

26. The criminal was incarcerated. (a) Arrested (b) Pardoned (c) Imprisoned (d) cautioned

27. The manager son found out that my sister was a competent typist. (a) Patient (b) capable (c) hardworking (d) careless.

28. The inception of his administration, the Governor was very popular. (a) End (b) beginning (c) dissolution (d) peak

29. The business man anticipated the collapse of the bank. (a) Prevented (b) caused (c) foresaw (d) pre-empted

30. The plaintiff was dissatisfied with the decision of the court. (a) Solicitor (b) accused (c) complainant (d) respondent

In the following passages, the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Against each number in the list below each passages.

PASSAGE

Jide bought his car last year and now there is the need to renew the ____31___. The first time he went to Mr. Olumide, the _____32_____, he was advised t0 ____33_____a ___34____rather than a ____35____ cover. Mr. Olumide had carefully explained the merits and demerits to both types, which included the fact that one was far more ___36___ than the other.

Now Jide has cause to smile because of his entitlement to a claim____37___.being a careful owner-driver, he had not been involved in any ____38____during the period. Unfortunately, the same could not be said for his friend, Jackson, whose car was a total ____39____after a ___40___with a truck.

A B C D

31. Roadworthiness chassis insurance policy vehicle dues

32. Road superintendent insurance broker drawing instructor licensing officer

33. Take out take up take on take in

34. Yearly license yearly premium cheaper deal comprehensive policy 35 second rate first party third party third rate

36. Expensive prohibitive exclusive impressive

37. Deduction bonus dividend reward

38. Incident event accident quarrel

39. Wash—out write-up knock-out write- off

40. Collision collusion contact confrontation

MATHEMATICS SS2 TIME ALLOWED: 2 HOURS

Choose the correct alternative in section A and answer No 1 and any two questions from section B.

SECTION A

Given the equation 8x – 3y = 5, find the gradient of the line.

2 b. 8 c. 6 d. 3

Represent the inequality -2 ≤ x < 5 on a line graph

b. C d.

3.What is the value of x in the figure below?

1200 b 1080. c. 520 d. 600

What is the range of values of x that satisfies the inequalities 2x – 1 > 3 and x + 3 < 8

2 < x < 8 b. 2 < x < 5 c. 1 < x < s d. -3 < x < 5

If P : Ade is the best student in the class Q: Ade worn an award

P: Ade is not the best student in the class and Q: Ade did not win an award, which means as P → Q also P → Q. This is :

Inverse statement b. Converse statement C .Implication d. Bi- implication

Find the gradient of the line joining points P(2,-3) and Q(-4,5)

2. b. -1 c. 1 d. 3

If -5 ≤ x ≤ -3, where x is an integer, find the highest value of x (a) -2 b.-4 c.-5 d. -3

What is the value of µ in the figure below?

a 720 b. 36 0 c. 400 d. 180

Solve the inequality: 5x + 6 ≥ 3 + 2x (a) x ≤ 1 b. x ≥ -1 c. x ≤ 2 d. x > -1

Express 4081.0392 to 2 significant figures. a. 4100 b. 4081.04 c. 4000 d. 4080

11. Find the value of x in the diagram below:

a. 500 b 1030 c. 950 d, 1000

12. Find the value of x in the figure

300 b 40 0 c 50 0 d. 650

13. Find the value of x in the equation (x – 3)2 = 16

a. 1 or 10 b . 4 or -2 c. 5 or 3 d. 1 or -10

14 If P stands for: Rain falls in summer and Q stands for: sun shines in the night, then PUQ is:

a. false b. true c. both true and false d. indeterminate

15. The length of a chord of a circle is 16 cm .If the radius of the circle is 10 cm, find the distance of the chord from the centre of the circle.

a. 7cm b. 8cm c. 5.6cm d. 6cm

16.

What is the value of <TUR in the figure above?

580 b. 650 c. 780 d. 430

17. Given that 3x + 7y = 1 and x – 7y = 19, then x + y =

-2 b. -3 c 3 d 5

18. Which of the following quadratic equations produces a maximum value for y

a. x 2 – 2x + 6 =0 b 3x + 2 – x2 = 0 c 5x2 – 3x + 6 = 0 d. x2 – 5x + 6 = 0

Use the diagram below to answer questions 19 and 20

19. What is the value of x?

a. 1140 b. 1350 c. 1280 d. 700

20. What is the value is y?

a. 700 b. 400 c. 500 d. 900.

21. Find the gradient of a line that passes through (-3, 4) and (5, 8)

a. b. c. d.

22, If -3 ≤ x ≤ 5 ,which of the following correctly represent the range?

b. c. d.

23. Find the equation of a line passing through points (-2, 3) and (1, 4)

a. x – 3y + 11 = 0 b. x + 3y – 11 = 0 c. 3y - x – 9 = 0 d. x + y + 11 = 0

24. What is the gradient of the line 3x – 2y = 5?

a. b. c. d.

25. A compound statement that is always true no matter the truth value is called

a. contradiction b. Tautology c. Inverse statement d. implication

26.What range of values of x satisfies that inequalities 3x-1>5 and x-5<3

a.2< x < 8 b -2 < x < 5 c. -1 < x< 7 d. -2 < x < 8

27. What is the equation of a line which passes through the points (3,2) with a gradient of ?

a. 2x – 3y = 0 b. 2x + 3y = 0 c. 3y = 2x + 1 d. 3y -2x = 0

28.The opposite angles of a Cyclic quadrilateral are :

a. complementary b. supplementary c. equal in size d. alternative

29. If a line is given as 4y + 2x – 3 = 0 ,what is the y intercept of the line?

a. b. c d

30. In the circle below, MN is a tangent ,find the value of α

a. 840 b. 960 c. 1040 d. 550

31. The length of a chord of circle is 12cm,if the chord is 8cm from the centre of the circle, find the radius of the circle

a. 9cm b. 8cm c. 7cm d. 10cm

32. Solve the inequality >

a. x < 10 b. x > 10 c. x < -10 d. x > 8

33. The compound statement under conjunction is true only :

a. if two component statements are true b. if at least one of the component statement is true

c. if the two component statements are false d. if only one of the component statement is true

In diagram below, |AB| is a diameter of the circle. Use it to answer questions 34 & 35

34. What is the size of x

a. 360 b. 720 c 660 d. 900

35. Find the value of y

540 b. 600 c 900 d 840

36 . Which of the following graphs produces a minimum value?

5x - 2x2 – 2 = 0 b, 8 – 2x2 + 6 =0 c. 3x – 2x2 = 4 d. x2 – 3x + 5 = 0

37. What is the common ratio between the terms of the geometric progression: - 72, - 24, - 8, …?

a. - 3 b. – c. – d.

38. In logical reasoning which of the following not a connective symbol.

a. < b. c. iff d.

39. If the range -3 ≤ x < 8 is given, where x is an integer , what is the highest value of x ?

a. 8 b. 7 c. 6 d. 9

40. write the converse of the following implication: - 2 > - 4 ⇒ 4 < 16

a. – 2 < - 4 ⇒ 4 > 16 b. 4 > 16 ⇒ – 2 < - 4 c. 4 < 16 ⇒ - 2 > - 4 d. - 2 > - 4 ⇒ 4 < 16

SECTION B: Answer question number one and any other two questions from this section.

Copy and complete the graph for the relation y = 2x2 – 5x + 1

Using a scale of 2cm to1 unit on the x-axis and 2cm to 5 units on y-axis, draw a graph of the relation y = 2x2 – 5x + 1 for -3 ≤ x ≤ 5

Using your graph ,solve the following equations:

2x2 – 5x + 1 = 0

2x2 – 5x - 6 = 0

What is the least value of the function y=2x2 – 5x + 1 and corresponding value of x

For what range of values of x is the function negative

Find the gradient of the tangent at x = 3.

2.a. if 4 + x ≤ 7 and 9 + x ≥ 7 are given inequalities, find the range of values of x which satisfy both inequalities

Use number line to illustrate your solution

Find the equation of line that passes through (-5, 4) with a gradient of

3 a, From the circle below, find the value α and β

Solve graphically the simultaneous inequalities 4x + 3y < 12, y > 0, x > 0 for the integral values of x (leave the require region unshaded.)

4.a Find the length of a chord of a circle whose radius is 13 cm and whose distance from the centre of the circle is 5cm

b. Find the equation of a line that passes through the points (-2,-3) and (1, 4)

above, find the <AOB in terms of a and b

PHYSICS SS 2

SECTION A: Instruction: Answer all objectives and any three theory questions

(1) The vibration resulting from the action of an external periodic force on the motion of a body is called: (A)Forced vibration (B) Damped vibration (C) Natural vibration (D) Compound vibration (E) Sinusoidal vibration

(2) A source of sound moves towards a stationary listener. The apparent pitch of the sound is found to be higher than its actual value. This happens because (a) wavelength of the sound increases. (b) the number of waves received by the listener decreases. (c) the number of waves received by the listener increases

(3) Force acting on two point masses is directly proportional to (a) sum of masses (b) difference of masses (c) distance between masses (d) product of masses

(4) A radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 600 kHz. If the speed of light in air is 3 x 108 ms-1, calculate the wavelength of the radio wave (A) 22.0 x 103m (B) 5.0 x 102m (C) 5.0 x 105m (D) 11.8 x 1011m

(5) The sound of minimum frequency emitted by a vibrating string is not termed as (a) first harmonic(b) first overtone(c) fundamental tone(d) none of the above

(6) Which of the following is not a mechanical wave? (A) Wave propagated in stretched string (B) Waves in closed pipes (C) Radio waves (D) Water waves (E) Sound waves

(7) A wave sent out from a source is reflected back to the source in 1.0 x 10-3s. If the velocity of the wave is 3.0 x 108ms-1, the distance of the reflecting surface from the source is (A) 1.5 x 102m (B) 3.0 x 102m (C) 3.0 x 105m (D) 1.5 x 105m (E) 6.0 x 105m.

(8) If V is the velocity of a wave, ( its wavelength and T its period, the V, ( and T are related by the expression

(A) ( = VT (B) f= (C) T2 = (V (D) V = (T (E) v =

(9) An image which can be formed on a screen is said to be (A) Virtual (B) Blurred (C) Inverted (D) Erect (E) Real

(10) A transparent rectangular block 5.0cm thick is placed on a black dot. The dot when viewed from above is seen 3.0 cm from the top of the block. Calculate the refractive index of the material of the block. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(11) The direction of a light ray changes as it passes from one medium to another. The phenomenon is called.

(A) diffraction (B) Reflection (C) Dispersion (D) refraction (E) deviation

(12) A boy standing some distance from the foot of a tall cliff claps his hands and hears an echo 0.5s later. If the speed of sound in air is 340ms-1 how far is he from the cliff? (A) 17m (B) 34m (C) 85m (D) 170m (E) 680m

(13) The speed of sound travelling in various media increases in the following correct order: (A) iron bar, air, water (B) iron bar, water, air (C) air, water, iron bar (D) water, iron bar, air (E) water, air, iron bar

(14) A source of sound produces waves in air of wavelength 1.65m. If the speed of sound in air is 330ms-1, the period of vibration in second is (A) 200 (B) 2.0 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.02 (E) 0.005

(15) Why does the sound from an enclosed bell jar gradually fade away as the jar is gradually evacuated? (A) The sound is forced out (B) The pressure within the jar is reduced (C) There is no more material medium (D) The temperature is reduced (E) The sound waves are absorbed by the inner walls.

(16) A ship’s echo sounder sends out a supersonic note which is received back at the ship 4 seconds after. If the velocity of sound through water is 1500ms-1. What is the depth of the seabed? (A) 300m (B) 1500m (C) 600m

(D) 4500m (E) 750m

(17) How much heat is required to convert 20g of ice at 0oC to water at the same temperature? (Specific latent heat of ice = 335Jg-1). (A) 1.35 x 103J (B) 5.38 x 103J) (C) 6.70 x 103J (D) 7.06 x 103J

(18) Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(A) Evaporation takes place only at the surface of a liquid. (B) Boiling takes place throughout the volume of a liquid. (C) Evaporation takes place at all temperatures (D) The boiling point of a liquid is not affected by impunities.

(19) Mass of Earth when it's radius is 6400 km and gravitational field strength is 9.81 N kg-1 is (a)6.0 × 1024 kg (b)5 × 1023 kg (c)40 × 109 kg(d)9 × 1024 kg

(20) The absolute zero of temperature is (A) -273oC (B) 100oC (C) 0oC (D) 100oC

(21) The volume of a given mass of gas is 273cm3 at 0oC. What is its volume at 273oC if its pressure remains constant? (A) 272cm3 (B) 273cm3 (C) 274cm3 (D) 546cm3

(22) N kg-1 is equivalent to (a)ms-2(b)ms-1 (c)m s (d)ms-3

(23) Which of the following equations is correct? (Where the symbols have their usual meanings.) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(24) Which of the following property is a consequence of superposition of waves? (A) Reflection (B) Refraction (C) Interference (D) Polarization

(25) The image of any real object formed by a diverging mirror is not (A) Inverted (B) Erect (C) Diminished (D) Virtual

(26) What is the minimum velocity required for an object of mass “m” to escape the gravitational pull of a planet o mass “M” and radius “R” from its surface? a) [(G*M)/R]1/2 b) [(2*G*M)/R] 2 c) [(G*M*m)/R]1/2 d) [(2*G*M)/R]1/2

(27) Array of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 30o. Calculate the angle which the reflected ray makes with the surface of the mirror. (A) 120o (B) 60o (C) 90o (D) 180o.

(28) The escape velocity of an object from the surface of the planet does not depend on the mass of the object. a) True b) False

(29) An object is placed 20cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 30cm. Calculate the position and nature of image formed. (A) 60 real (B) 8.6 real (C) 8.6 virtual (D) 30 virtual

(30) Which of the following instruments makes use of the principle of total internal reflection?

(A) Periscope (B) Microscopes (C) Sextants (D) Telescope

(31) Among the four, the highest wavelength is of (a) radio waves (b) infrared (c) ultraviolet (d) gamma rays

(32) An object 1.00cm high is placed 18.0cm from a converging mirror forms a real image 2.00cm high. Calculate the focal length of the mirror (A) 36.0cm (B) 18.0cm (C) 12.0cm (D) 9.0cm

(33) The factor that helps to recognize a person by his voice is (a) intensity (b) pitch(c) loudness (d) quality

(34) Which of the following best describes the image formed by a convex mirror? (A) Virtual, erect and magnified (B) Real, inverted and deminished.C) Virtual erect and diminished (D) Magnified inverted and virtual

(35) Which of the following is the correct relationship between the relative refractive index n of glass and the critical angle x? (A) (B) (C) (D)

(36) Pitch depends upon the (a) amplitude (b) wavelength(c) frequency (d) speed

(37) Doppler effect is as a result of (A) Reflection (B) Refraction (C) Relative motion (D) beat effect

(38) Calculate the frequency of fundamental of a closed pipe of length 20cm, if the speed of sound waves in air is 340 ms-1 (A) 40Hz (B) 200Hz (C) 350Hz (d)425Hz

(39) Loudness of sound depends on (A) frequency (B) intensity (C) overtones (D) Harmonics

(40) A man standing 99m from the foot of a tall cliff claps his hands and hears an echo 0.6s later. Calculate the velocity of sound in air in ms-1.(A) 59.4 (B) 82.5 (C) 330 (D) 430

SECTION B

Outline four applications of artificial satellite in the service of man. b) Briefly explain the terms electromotive force, terminal potential difference and internal resistance (c) Calculate the length of a Constantin wire of diameter 0.6mm and resistivity 1.1×10-6Ωm required to construct a standard resistor of resistance 35Ω. (d) Mention four factors that affect the resistance of a metallic conductor wire

A battery of three cells in series, each of E.m.f. 2V and internal resistance 0.5Ω is connected to a 2Ω resistor in series with a parallel combination of two 3Ω resistors. Draw the circuit diagram and calculate:

The effective external resistance (b)The current in the circuit (c) The lost volts in the battery (d) he current in one of the 3Ω resistors

Define each of the three characteristics of musical note b) A sonometer wire has a fundamental frequency of 259Hz, if it is under a tension of 1200N, and a meter of it has a mass of 0.05Kg, calculate the length of the wire when it is vibrating in the fundamental mode c) Differentiate between resonance and forced vibration (d) differentiate between noise and music

State Pascals law of transmission of pressure in fluids b) A hydraulic press consists of two cylinders of cross-sectional area 0.2m2 and 5.0m2. The piston in the smaller cylinder is pushed down with a force of 1000N through a distance of 0.2m. calculate (i)The pressure transmitted by the fluid (ii) The force exerted by the piston in the large cylinder ( c ) Mention four applications of atmospheric pressure

Name five uses of electromagnetic radiations. ii) What do you understand by gravitational field?

b) State Newton’s law of universal gravitation. (II ) If g=9.8m/s2, G=6.7×10-11Nm2kg-2, calculate the mass of the earth if the radius of the earth is approximately taken as 6400km (c ) List the eight planets in their order of separation from the Sun

SS2 CHEMISTRY EXAMINATION 2nd TERM 2022/2023 (section A, Answer all)

14.8g of salt Z dissolved in 250cm3 of distilled water gives a concentration of 0.8mol/dm 3. Calculate the molar mass of the salt Z. (a) 74.0g/mol (b) 13.5g/mol (c)47.2g/mol (d)18.5g/mol

Element in group 7 are known as (A) alkali metals (B) halogens (C) noble gases (D) lanthanides

The following factors cause environmental pollution except (A) bush burning (B) industrialization (C) photosynthesis (D) chemical warfare

The process in which water is treated with slaked lime and alum is known as (A) chlorination (B) coagulation (C) filtration (D) sedimentation

The bleaching action of chlorine in water is because of its - (A) ability to accept hydrogen (B) oxidizing power (C ) reducing property (D) strong acidic nature

Ammonium dioxonitrate(iii) (iv) NH4NO2 decomposes to form (A) NH4+ and NO2 (B) N2,H2 and O2 (C) N2 and NH3 (D) N2 and H2O

Which of the following is used as a coolant (A) gaseous nitrogen (B) Nitrogen (iv) oxide (C) liquid nitrogen (D) nitrogen (ii) oxide

All of these are used in photography except (A) AgCl (B) AgBr (C) AgI (D) AgNO3

Ethanol is prepared from glucose by the process of (A) catalytic hydration (B) fermentation (C) hydrolysis (D) Respiration

What is oxidation number of chlorine in KClO3 and Cl2? (A)0 and -1 (B)0 and +5 (C)+5 and 0 (D)+7 and 0

The following gasses are diatomic except (a)helium (b) nitrogen (c) hydrogen (d) fluorine

Rare gases are stable because they (A) are chemically active( B) contain equal number of neutrons and proton (C) contain more proton than electron (D) have complete electrons in their outermost shell

When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction, the reaction is said to (A) adiabatic (B) endothermic (C) exothermic (D) isothermic

The activation energy of a reaction can be altered by (A) adding a reducing agent (B) applying a high pressure (C) using a catalyst (D) change in temperature

What is the mass number of an element if its atom contains 10 protons, 10 electrons and 12 neutrons? (A) 32 (B)22 (C) 20 (D) 10

How many isotopes has hydrogen? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

A solution that contains as much solute as it can dissolve at a particular temperature is said to be (A) concentrated (B) saturated (C) supersaturated (D) unsaturated.

When water was added to a white anhydrous substance X, the colour changed to blue. X is (A)CuSO4 (B) FeSO4 (C) Na2SO4 (D)PbSO4

Consider the following reaction equation H3O+ (aq) + OH- (aq) 2H2O (l). The reaction represent (A) esterification (B) hydrolysis (C)neutralization (D) redox

A solution that contains as much solute as it can dissolve at a particular temperature is said to be (A) concentrated (B) saturated (C) supersaturated (D) unsaturated.

On evaporation to dryness 350 cm3 of a saturated solution of a salt Z gave 55.5g of salt. What is the solubility of the salt? [molar mass of Z is 101g/mol] (A) 1.57mol/dm3 (B) 3.14mlodm3 (C) 6.28 moldm3 (D) 12.56 moldm3

The high solubility of ethanol in water is due to its (A) low boiling point (B) low freezing point (C) covalent nature (D) hydrogen bond

A substance which dissolve readily in organic solvent would (A) be a covalent compound (B) have a strong forces of attraction (C) have a high melting point (D) conduct electricity

If 10cm3 of distilled water is added to 10cm3 of an aqueous salt solution, the concentration of the solution (A) increases (B) decreases (C) remains the same (D) doubles

Which of the following statements about chlorine and iodine at room temperature is correct? (A) cholrine is gas and iodine is solid (B) chlorine is liquid and iodine is gas (C) chlorine and iodine are gases (D) chlorine is solid and iodine is liquid

A sample of a gas may be identified as chlorine if it turns (A)damp blue litmus red (B) lime water milky (C) lead ethanoate paper black (D) starch iodide paper blue black.

Zinc oxide is said to be amphoteric because it (A) forms an acid (B) is an insoluble base (C) forms a double (D) reacts with a base or an acid

Which of the following statement is correct? The solubility of (A) gases increases with increase in temperature (B) gases decreases with increase in temperature (C) most solute solids decreases with increase in temperature (D) most solids solute is constant.

The component of air that can be removed by alkaline pyrogallol solution is (A) oxygen (B) nitrogen (C) water vapour (D) carbon (iv) oxide

Which of the following pair of gases are pollutants from car exhaust? (A) nitrogen (ii) oxide and carbon (iv) oxide (B) carbon (iv) oxide and nitrogen (D) carbon (ii) oxide and sulphur (iv) oxide

What is the concentration in mol/dm3 of a solution containg 0.1g of sodium hydroxide per 250cm3 of solution? (NaOH = 40g/mol) (A) 0.05 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.5 (D) 2

How many moles are there in 500cm3 of 0.01 mol/dm3 AgNO3 solution? (A) 0.005mole (B) 0.05mole (C) 0.5mole (D) 5mole

The energy change which accompanies the addition of an electron to an isolated gaseous atom is (A) atomization (B) electronegativity (C) electron affinity (D) ionization

Which of the following can conveniently be placed in two groups in the periodic table? (A) copper (B) carbon (C) hydrogen (D) oxygen

An element Q forms a compound QCl5. In which of the group of the periodic table is Q? (A) II (B)III (C) IV (D) V

To which group and period respectively does an element with 15 electrons belong? (A) 3 and 3 (B) 3 and 5 (C)5 and 3 (D) 5 and 5

Chlorine is used in water treatment as (A) germicide (B) a decolorizing (C) antioxidant (D)coagulating agent

The element with electron configuration 1S22S22P63S23P1 belongs to (A) s – block, period 3, group 1 (B) p – block, period 3, group 2. (C) s – block, period 3, group 3 (D) p– block, period 3, group 3

In the periodic table al the element within the same group have the same (A) number of neutron (B) number of valence electron (C)number of isotopes (D) atomic number

Which of the following halogens is a solid at room temperature? (A) iodine (B) chlorine (C) fluorine (D) bromine

THEORY : SECTION B Answer only three question from this section.

1a. Define (i) Saturated solution (ii) Unsaturated solution (iii) super saturated solution (iv)Solubility

1b. when 50cm3 of a saturated solution of KNO3 at 250C was evaporated to dryness. 10g of a dry salt was obtained. What is the solubility of KNO3 at 250C.? (Given K=39, N=14, O=16).

1c. Give two application of solubility curve. 1d. Give one test for water

2a. Write down the steps involved in the purification water for municipal supply. (ii) State the two types of hardness in water (iii) Name a salt that causes each type of hardness. (iv) Write a balanced equation for the removal of each type of hardness.

2b. State two chemical properties (equation is important) and two physical properties of Hydrogen.

2c. Describe the bleaching action of chlorine.

3 (a) Define the following (i) Global warming (ii) Greenhouse gases (iii) Greenhouse effect (iv) Ozone layer.

(b) State two effect of global warming (c) Describe one method of laboratory preparation of hydrogen

(d) Draw a well labelled diagram for the laboratory preparation of Oxygen.

4.(a) List four physical properties of the halogens (b) draw and label a diagram to illustrate the preparation and collection of dry chlorine in the laboratory (c) State the function of water and concentrated H2SO4 in the above preparation. (d) List four uses of hydrogen (e) Arrange the halogens in the order of increasing (i) reactivity (ii) oxidizing power (iii) colour

5.(a) Describe the industrial preparation of nitrogen (b) Define the following oxides two examples each (i) Acidic oxide (ii) Basic oxide (c) State what will be observed when a damped starch iodide paper is dropped in a jar of chlorine. (d) Explain your answer in (c) above (e) List four physical properties of oxygen.

SS 2 BIOLOGY SECOND TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2022/2023 SESSION

SECTION A

Which of the following is not regarded as a micronutrient or trace element for plant growth

(a) phosphorous (b) zinc (c) boron (d) silicon.

The relationship between an herbivore and the bacteria which live in its caecum is known as (a) parasitism (b) symbiosis (c) commensalism (d) predator

Which of the following is not classified as a terrestrial habitat (a) forest(b) guinea savannah (c) afro alpine(d) littoral zone

Which of the following are not causative organism of plant disease? (a)fungi (b) viruses (c) cercariee (d) bacteria

A constituent of the exhaust gases of motor vehicles which causes serious air pollution is? (A) water cycle (b) carbon dioxide (c) carbon monoxide (d) oxygen

Which of the following blood component has the greatest affinity for oxygen and carbon dioxide (a) blood plasma (b) leucocyte (c) thrombocyte (d) erythrocyte

Which of the following organs is responsible for controlling the body temperature regulation and water balance in mammals? (a) kidney (b) hypothalamus (c) parathyroid (d) adrenal

The translocation of food materials in plants take place in the (a) xylem (b) cambium (c) phloem (d) bone

Which of the following is not an effect of overcrowding on a population (a) death (b) competition (c) commensalism (d) aggression

The term used in describing the effective management of natural resource of man is (a) preservation (b) utilization (c) economic (d) conservation

Which of the following fixes atmospheric nitrogen? (a) rhizobium (b) Nitrosomona (c) nitrobacter (d) putrefying bacteria

Differentiate tissues in plant contribute to the support of the plant as a result of the following characteristics except (a) malleability (b) rigidity (c) flexibility (d) hardness

The cup-shaped part of the bowman’s capsule contains (a) nephridium (b) glomerulus (c) loop of Henle (d) nephron

Which of the following reagents is used for the test for starch? (a) millions reagents (b) Fehling solution (c) Sudan III (d) iodine solution

Which of the following factors is an autotrophic mode of nutrition? (a) chemosynthesis(b) Saprophytism (c) parasitism (d) symbiosis

Which of the following factors is not associated with aquatic habitat (a) osmosis (b) inhalation (c) diffusion (d) exhalation

Which of the following types of soil has the highest water retaining capacity (a) clay (b) laterite (c) loam (d) gravel

Which of the following process is not involved in the carbon cycle? (A) burning (b) decay (c) transpiration (d) respiration

Water rises rapidly in (a) sandy soil (b) clay soil (c) sandy, loam soil (d) loamy soil

Which of the following is not part of the female reproductive system? (a) ovary (b) seminal vesicle (c) uterus (d) vaginal

The number of individual in a habitat in relation to the unit space available to each organism is referred to as the? (a) birth rate (b) density (c)mortality (d) frequency

Oxygenated blood from the lungs is carried to the left auricle of the heart through the (a) pulmonary vein (b) pulmonary artery (c) hepatic portal vein (d) renal portal vein

Which of the following is not an example of a heterotrophic mode of nutrition? (a) symbiosis(b) parasitism (c) commensalism(d) holophytism

Which of the is used for the collection of small insects from the soil, leaf litter crevices (a) pooter (b) quadrant (c) sweep net (d) dragnet

Which of the following are food grains best preserved? (a) silos (b) snacks (c) refrigerator’s (d) ovens

Which of the following is a pollutant of air? (a) oxygen (b) water vapour (c) carbon monoxide (d) nitrogen

The respiratory organ found in the cockroach is the (a) air sac (b) trachea (c) lung book (d) lungs

Which of the following organs is associated with deamination of protein? (a) lung (b) stomach (c) kidney (d) liver

Ultrafiltration

Which of the following water pollutants may contain organisms that cause dysentery (a) pesticides (b) sewage (c) industrial waste (d) fertilizers

The use of predators or parasites to control pest in the farm is known as? (a) predator control (b) chemical control (c) biological control (d) animal control

The scientist who discovered the cell while examining thin slice of cork under the microscope was? (a) Robert Hooke (b) anto van (c) Matthias schleden (d) Theodor schann

The process by which plants manufacture food from carbon dioxide and water, using energy from the sun is termed? (a) chemosynthesis (b) photosynthesis (c) autotrophism (d) heterotrophism

In which of the following is a cellulose cell wall present? (a) amoeba (b) mammalian white blood cell (c) spirogyra (d) paramecium

Which of the following is not required for primary production to occur in plant? (a) chlorophyll (b) sugar (c) water (d) carbon dioxide

Which of the following organisms is one celled and free living? (a) volvox (b) spirogyra (c) rhizopus (d) chlamydomonas

which of the following is not a tissue found in plants? (a) epidermis (b) phloem (c) xylem (d) dermis

hormones are transported around the mammalian body by? (a) water (b) nerves (c) blood (d) osmosis

Which of the following organism has a symbiotic relationship with green algae? (a) amoeba (b) paramecium (c) hydra (d) euglena

The maintenance of a constant internal environment of an organism is known as? (a) homeostasis (b) homeothesis (c) turgidity (d) diuresis

SECTION B: - (THEORY): INSTRUCTION: -Answer any 3 (three) from this section

(a) Define conservation (b) explain four (4) methods of conservation

(a) Define pest (b) mention four (4) types of pest (c) explain 3 classification of insect pest

(d) explain four (4) ways of controlling pest

(a) Define reproductive system (b) state the function of the following organs

(I) sperm duct (II) Testes (III) Ovary (c) Explain the following terms

(I) Perfect flower (II) Imperfect flower (III) Complete flower (IV) Incomplete flower

(d) Explain two (2) diseases of the kidney

(a) Make a labelled diagram of the female reproductive organ of a flowering plant

(b) state the function of any two (2) of the labelled part in (a)

(a) list two (2) diseases each of plant and animals caused by bacteria (b) state three (3) ways in which bacteria are useful (c) State three (3) methods by which mosquitoes can be controlled.

CIVIC EDUCATION

INSTRUCTION: Answer all the questions in this section

SECTION A

The set of codes prepared by Government Agency meant to conduct or regulate the excesses of road users is called_____

____ are signs placed at the side of the roads to impart information to motorists and other road users

The reasons behind the usage of symbols in place of words under traffic regulation is ___

___is a person who is walking on the road especially in the area also being used by vehicles

“Animals are also classified as road users under the Nigerian traffic code” Is this statement correct or incorrect

“Zebra crossing is the same as pedestrian crossing “ Is this statement correct or incorrect

Your parents have a covenant position with God over your life. Therefore you must have their goodwill in life if not, it may not be well with you in life” True or False

Social pathologies such as unemployment, economic hardship and frustration is one of the reasons why people indulge in drug is this statement correct or incorrect

___is any substance that when absorbed into the body of a living organism changes normal body formation

___is the habitual repetition of consuming drugs regardless of the known or unknown consequences

“coffee and gasoline are drugs” is this statement correct or incorrect

___are used as performance enhancing drugs particularly among sportsmen and sportswomen

___are substances that makes one to hallucinate or misjudge

___are substances that have a stimulating effects on the nervous system of their users

NDLEA means___

NAFDAC means___

Reclusive behavior is ___

NDLEA was established by decree No___of January, 1990 under the military administration of General Ibrahim Babangida

NAFDAC was established by decree No___of 1993 under the regime of General Ibrahim Babangida

The current chairman of NDLEA is___

The current Director General of NAFDAC is___

The Director of the FCT Dept of Science and Technology and Innovation is___

The 2023 presidential election Is Nigeria was held on the___

The principal of the GSSS Pyakasa-Maitama is___

Who is your civic education teacher?

GSSS Pyakasa was established in the year___

The Honorable minister of FCT is___

Those people who have exceptional memory capacity for story telling are called___

___is the embodiment of traditions, customs and beliefs

When a culture is steadily pinning away by collapsing into a superior culture is known as__

SECTION B

INSTRUCTION: Answer all the questions

(a) Define public service

(b) Discuss two characteristics of public service known to you

(a) What is interpersonal relationship?

(b) Mention and discuss two factors that can promote inter personal relationship

(a) What do you understand by Responsible Parenthood?

(b) Mention and discuss two roles of responsible parenthood?

(a) What is inter communal relationship?

(b) Mention or state four of the NDLEA drug laws you have leant about?

ECONOMICS

A market situation with a large number of firms selling closely related but differentiated products(A)Duopoly(B)monopolistic competition(C)monopsony(D)monopoly

Which of these is a condition necessary for a perfect market(A)there is preferential treatment(B)there is a large number of buyers and sellers(C)few numbers of buyers and sellers(D)goods are heterogonous

When elasticity is zero, the demand curve is(A)concave(B)perfectly inelastic(C)perfectly elastic(D)downward slope

Which of the market determine its own price or output(A)perfect(B)commodity (C)monopoly(D)competitive

When the price of goods is above the equilibrium, there will be(A)inflation(B)unemployment(C)surplus (D)shortage

The type of monopoly that develop as a result of granting patent right is known as monopoly (A)state (B)legal (C)natural (D) Discriminating

If price fall below the equilibrium price(A)demand will be greater than supply(B)demand will equal supply(C)price will become intermediate(D)supply will be greater than demand

Market equilibrium exist when(A)price is fluctuating(B)no buyer goes home empty handed(C)demand and supply are equal(D)the market is large

Unemployment that arises because of the introduction of new machines and equipment in production is(A)frictional(B)residual(C)cyclical (D)structural

The type of monopoly that occurs as a result of uneven distribution of resources is called(A)international(B)state(C)natural(D)legal

The extra satisfaction which a consumer derives from consumption is called_utility(A)variable(B)total(C)average

(D)marginal

Unemployment caused by disability is(A)frictional(B)residual(C)cyclical (D)structural

The major reason for the location of cement factory is(A)type of people(B)nearness to market(C)cost of goods(D)name of the company

Revenue is the(A)price of goods multiply by quantity(B)quantity of goods less quantity supplied(C)quantity of goods plus purchase price(D)cost of goods multiply by quantity sold

Which of the following is regarded as a fixed cost(A)cost of fuel(B)cost of raw material(C)rent on land(D)cost of light

Which of the following economic system is in operation in Nigeria(A)socialist(B)capitalist(C)Marxist (D)mixed

What are inferior goods? These are goods(A)that are no longer in demand(B)that are generally in short supply(C)price elasticity of demand is constant(D)whose demand falls as income increases

Money market is a market for—term loan(A)long(B)short(C)medium(D)short and long

Subsistence agriculture means(A)farming for urban dwellers(B)cultivating for household consumption(C)cultivation for local industry(D)cultivation for external use

Which of the following is not a type of industry(A)manufacturing(B)transport(C)mining(D)sugar

Which of the following is used to control monopoly(A)sales(B)cost(C)privatization(D)production

Perfectly inelastic demand is represented as E= (A)1(B)0(C)<1(D)>0

Perfectly elastic demand is represented as E= (A)1(B)0(C)infinity(D)>0

Which of the term is not a type of utility(A)form(B)time(C)date(D)place

Majority of west African labour force is engaged in(A)construction industry(B)agricultural production(C)industrial production(D)mining industry

The idea that all jobs are equal is known as(A)employment(B)job creation(C)dignity of labour(D)self-employment

The figure shows the old and new price of bread as 40, 50 and old and new quantity as 160, 80. Using the information above calculate for question 27---30.

Percentage change in quantity demand(A)25(B)30(C)40(D)50

Percentage change in price(A)25(B)30(C)40(D)50

Coefficient of price elasticity of demand(A)1(B)2(C)0.5(D)1.5

What type of elasticity is demand(A)perfectly (B)unitary(C)inelastic(D)elastic

Market is classified according to (A)price(B)taste(C)durability(D)size

Which of the following is not a reason for low agricultural productivity in Africa(A)Poor transportation system(B)lack of basic amenities(C)illiteracy of the farmer(D)adequate capital

Which of the following is a function of marketing boards(A)price stabilization(B)cost of goods(C)providing seedling(D)cultivation of crop

Which of the following is an agricultural policy in Nigeria(A)operation feed the nation(B)crop rotation(C) farming for urban dwellers (D)operation starve the nation

Which of the following is an advantage of localization of industries(A)Creation of competition(B)availability of labour(C)availability of raw material(D)scarcity of capital

Capital market is a market for__term loan(A)long(B)short(C)medium(D)short and long

An imperfect market in which there are two sellers of a single commodity is(A)monopoly(B)oligopoly(C)duopoly(D)monopsony

An imperfect market in which there is a single buyer of a product is(A)monopoly(B)oligopoly(C)duopoly(D)monopsony

An imperfect market in which there are few producers of the same commodities is(A)monopoly(B)oligopoly(C)duopoly(D)monopsony

A country has a working population of 4.8 million of which 3.6 million people are employed, what is the unemployment rate(A)20%(B)10%(C)25%(D)30%

SECTION B: INSTRUCTIONS: Answer question 1 and any other two questions from this

(b) define the following terms(i)elasticity demand(ii)inelasticity demand(iii)unitary elastic demand(iv)perfectly elastic demand(v)perfectly inelastic demand 30 MARKS

(a) (i) What is an industry (ii) define an industrial estate (iii) list 3 types of industries

(iv) Define location of industry(v)state 2 factors influencing location of industry(vi) what is localization of industry (vii)state one factor influencing localization of industry 10 MARKS

(a) (i)What is unemployment (ii)State two causes of unemployment and two effects of unemployment(iii)state two solutions of unemployment

(b) Define self-employment (ii) Dignity of labour(iii)voluntary unemployment 10 MARKS

(a) Define the following terms(i)utility(ii)marginal utility(iii)time utility(iv)place utility(v)total utility

(b) (vi)state the law of diminishing marginal utility(vii)what is equilibrium price and quantity(viii)state the formula for total, average and marginal utility 10 MARKS

(a) (i)Define marketing board(ii)state two problems of marketing boards(iii)state two problems of distribution of commodities in west Africa

(b) (i)state three agricultural policies in Nigeria(ii)state two solutions to problems of agriculture in Nigeria

Physical Education

SECTION A: Instruction: Answer all questions from this section

Answer the questions in this section

Which of the following ancient city held physical education in high esteem? (a) Britain (b) Ethiopia (c) Greece (d) Japan (e) Sweden

The concept of a "whole man" in physical education include the following objectives EXCEPT (a) Creativity (b) Education (c) Fitness (d) Hygiene (e) Recreation

The ancient physical education in Nigeria is mainly for (a) Competition (b) Festivities (c) Military (d) Recreation (e) Survival

The ancient of Olympic game was abolished in 393 AD by (a) Adolf spices (b) Baran Pierrede Coubertin (c) Emperor (d) Per Henrik Theodosius (e) John Dewey

Adolf spices 1.B. Basedow and Guts Nuths are all pioneers of physical education from (a) Africa (b) Arabia (c) Britain (d) Germany (e) Rome

The activity that one voluntarily engage in that can refresh or relax the body and mind is described as ____ (a) Physical education (b) Physical fitness (el Recreation (d) Competition (e) Tournament

Sports competition organized within the school is called ___ (a) Annual event (b) Extramural competition (c) Interval competition (el) Intramural competition (e) Regular event

NICEGA is a body responsible for the organization of sports and games among Nigerian (a)

Armed forces (b) College of education (c) Polytechnics (d) Secondary schools (e) Universities

Which of the following bodies is responsible for organizing athletics competitions in Nigeria? (a) AFN (b) BFN (c) GAN (d) HFN (e) NFA

The acronym of NSSF means (a) National School Soccer Federation (b) National School Sport Federation (c) National Secondary School Football (d) Nigeria School Sports Federation (e) Nigeria Social Sports

These are the effects of recreation on the body EXCEPT (a) Good health (b) Wealth creation (c) Social satisfaction (d) Emotional satisfaction (e) Physical fitness

The following are Intramural sports competition EXCEPT (a) Inter house (b) Inter class (c) Inter faculty (d) Inter departmental (e) National football league

Which of the following is not an extramural activity? (a) Inter house athletics competition (b) National athletics open championship (c) National handball league (d) National challenge cup competition (e) Nigeria table tennis open championship.

Which of the following is not an objective of physical fitness? (a) Developing the system of the body (b) Developing good health (c) Maintaining an optimal level of physiology efficiency (d)

Having ability to move freely and with control (e) To tolerate and accommodate others in sports

Which of the following is not associated with recreation? (a) Canoeing (b) Championship (c) Excursion (d) Football (e) Mountaineering

A mesomorph has an advantage in the following sports and games EXCEPT (a) Basketball (b) Football (c) Handball (d) Shot put (e) Sprint races

Which of these vitamins promotes blood clotting? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) K

The knee and elbow are example of joint in human skeleton. (a) Ball and socket (b) Gliding (c) Hinge (d) Pivot (e) Saddle

Human movement is always possible due to (a) Bone formation (b) Contraction of the heart (c) Ligament attachment (d) Muscle attachment (e) Muscular contraction

The process of gaseous exchange in the cell is known as (a) Absorption (b) Anabolism (c) Assimilation (d) Dialysis (g) Diffusion

The combination of joints that permit circular movement in the body are joints. (a) Elbow and shoulder (b) Hip and knee (c) Knee and wrist (d) Shoulder and hip (e) Wrist and elbow

Which of the following body system bring about active movement? (a) Digestive and Excretory (b) Muscular and reproductive (c) Nervous and digestive (d) Skeletal and muscular (e) Urinary and muscular

Which of the following is not a type of circulatory system? (a) Arteries (b) Capillaries (c) Gonads (d) Heart (e) Vein

Which of these injuries can further lead to dislocation? (a) Cramp (b) Fracture (c) Shock (d) Sprain (e) Strain

An injury that occurs when a sharp jagged and irregular object cuts deep into the skin is called (a) Compound fracture (b) Incise wound (c) Impacted fracture (d) Lacerated wound (e) Punctured wound

Which of these conditions does not require artificial respiration? (a) Choking (b) Drowning (c) Electric shock (d) Fracture (e) Sprain

Which of the following is not a first aid for fracture? (a) Apply warm compress to closed fracture (b) Cover the broken area (c) Immobilize the affected part (d) Keep victim warm (e) Stop bleeding

Which of the following is an example of nacotic drugs? (a) Babiturates (b) Cocaine (c) Marijuana (d) Morphine (e) Valium

Doping in sports has the following effects EXCEPT (a) Alertness and strength (b) Curing illness and alignment (c) Decrease in sensitivity to pain (d) Increasing ability to strenuous exercise (e) Improving ability to concentrate

The following are phases in high jump EXCEPT (a) Approach (b) Flight (c) Landing (d) Run-up (e) Take-off

When the ball goes out of play from the side line in soccer, the game is restarted by a (a) Goal kick (b) Corner kick (c) Free kick (d) Penalty kick (8) Throw-in.

What is the maximum numbers of players in the game of tennis? (a) 2 (b) 3 (a/ 4 (d) 5 (e) 6

Changes of service in table tennis come up after every____ points. (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 (e) 10

Flicking is a basic skill in the game of (a) Basketball (b) Hockey (c) Soccer (d) Tennis (e) Volleyball

Which of the following is not a basic skill in swimming? (a) Breast stroke (b) Paddle boat (c) front crawls (d) Butterfly (e) Back-crawl

The width of a badminton court measures _ metres. (a) 5.95 (b) 6.05 (c) 6.08 (d) 6.10 (e) 6.20

How many seconds is a player allowed to hold the ball in handball game? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6

The dimension of a hockey field is _ metres. (a) 75 by 53 (b) 91.74 by 50 (c) 91.75 by 54.9 (d)

91.40 by 55 (e) 220 by 65

The following are requirement in handball EXCEPT (a) Ball (b) Net (c) Shin guard (d) Stop watch (e) Whistle SECTION B: Theory

Answer three questions from this section.

Question one (1) is compulsory

1a. Draw a standard diagram of a basketball court

1b. Indicate the following areas in the diagram (i) Sideline (ii) Restraining circle (iii) Centre line (iv) Free throw line (v) Three points arc

2a. What is First Aid? 2b. State five objectives of First aid 2c. Mention three qualities of a good first aider

3a. Explain sports injuries? 3b. Mention five examples of sports injuries?

3c. Differentiates between fracture and wounds with appropriates examples

4a. Define nutrition? 4b. State 5 determination of energy requirements in the body

4c. Briefly explain the following (i) drug (ii) hard drug (iii) drug abuse (iv) drug misuse (v) drug addiction